REVIEW QUESTIONS ON GEMARA AND RASHI
prepared by Rabbi Eliezer Chrysler
Kollel Iyun Hadaf, Jerusalem
Previous daf Zevachim 40
ZEVACHIM 36-40 - Dedicated to the leaders and participants in the Dafyomi
shiurim at the Young Israel of New Rochelle, by Andy & Nancy Neff
(a) The Beraisa just included Matan Sheva in the Din of 'Ikuv Matanos',
because it is Me'akev elsewhere. 'Elsewhere' refers to the Parah Adumah
("Ve'hizah el Nochach P'nei Ohel Mo'ed" [Chukas]) and Nega'im ("Ve'hizah min
ha'Shemen Asher be'Etzba'o" [Metzora]).
From where do we know 'Ikuv
Matanos' by ...
(b) The Tana also included Matan Arba from "Kein Ya'aseh". We answer the
Kashya that the Pasuk specifically refers to Matan Arba too (no less than to
Matan Sheva) by establishing the author as Rebbi Shimon.
- ... Parah Adumah?
- ... Nega'im?
What does he
Darshen in another Beraisa from "Keren, K'ranos" (by the Par He'elam Davar),
"Keren, K'ranos" (by the Par Kohen Mashi'ach)?
(c) On what basis does he Darshen "Keren K'ranos"? What does he do with the
fact that "K'ranos" by the Par He'elam Davar is written minus a 'Vav'?
(d) How does this answer the Kashya?
(a) What does Rebbi Yehudah learn from "be'Ohel Mo'ed"?
(b) And from "Kein Ya'aseh" he includes the Par Yom ha'Kipurim in the Din of
Semichah and the pouring of the Sheyarei ha'Dam.
But did the Beraisa not
learn earlier from "la'Par" 'Zeh Par Yom ha'Kipurim'?
(a) And what does Rebbi Shimon learn from "be'Ohel Mo'ed"?
(b) What will he say to Rebbi Yehudah, who learns this from ''Asher (Pesach
(c) According to Abaye, the author of our Mishnah could even be Rebbi
Yehudah, because he too, requires a Pasuk to include Matan Arba, even though
it is written explicitly in the Pasuk.
How is that? Why might we have
(a) The Beraisa learned Par Yom ha'Kipurim from "la'Par".
What is the
problem with this? What makes us think that we ought not to need it?
(b) We establish the Beraisa like Rebbi Yehudah, who learns "Chukah" on the
things that were performed with the Kohen Gadol's white garments inside.
What does 'inside' mean in this context?
(c) To what are we then referring when we say that Chukah, according to
Rebbi Yehudah, does not pertain to the things that were performed with the
Kohen Gadol's white garments outside?
(d) What would we now have thought, according to Rebbi Yehudah, had the
Torah not written "la'Par"?
(a) Rav Papa asks how we can establish the previous Beraisa like Rebbi
Yehudah, in light of another Beraisa.
What does Rebbi Akiva mean when he
Darshens from the Pasuk in Acharei-Mos "Ve'chilah mi'Kaper es ha'Kodesh"
(which is otherwise superfluous) 'Im Kiper Kilah, ve'Im Lo Kiper, Lo Kilah'?
(b) Rebbi Yehudah asks Rebbi Akiva why he inverts the words "V'echilah
mi'Kaper es ha'Kodesh".
So how does he Darshen it?
(c) In any event, what do we see from there that clashes with the previous
Beraisa (assuming the author to be Rebbi Yehudah)?
(a) Rav Papa answers that, based on the Pasuk in Vayikra (in connection with
the Par Kohen Mashi'ach) "Ve'taval ha'Kohen es Etzba'o ba'Dam", we learn
from "la'Par" 'es', 'be'Dam' and 'Tevilah' (with regard to Yom Kipur).
How does Rav Acha bar Ya'akov explain "es Etzba'o"?
Answers to questions
(b) We explain 'be'Dam' to mean 'she'Yehei be'Dam Shi'ur Tevilah
What do we mean by that?
(c) And what do we learn from "Ve'taval"?
(d) How do we reconcile the fact that we are learning the Par Yom Kipur from
the Pasuk of the Par He'elam Davar, whereas the Pasuk ("Ve'taval ha'Kohen es
Etzba'o ba'Dam") is written by Kohen Mashi'ach?
(a) Why does the Torah need to write both "be'Dam" and "Ve'taval"? What
might we have thought had it written ...
(b) Having written "Mizbach ... Asher Lifnei Hashem", why does the Torah
need to add "(Mizbach) Ketores Samim ... "?
- ... "Ve'taval" and not "be'Dam"?
- ... "be'Dam" and not "Ve'taval"?
(a) What does Rebbi (or Rebbi Akiva) in a Beraisa mean when he learns from
"la'Par", 'Le'rabos Par Yom ha'Kipurim, le'Chol Mah she'Amur ba'Inyan'?
(b) How does Tana de'Bei Rebbi Yishmael learn this from a 'Kal va'Chomer'
from where the animals are not the same?
(c) So he Darshens "la'Par" to include Par He'elam Davar shel Tzibur (which
we will explain later).
How does he Darshen "le'Par"?
(d) What Pircha can we ask on Tana de'Bei Rebbi Yishmael, assuming he is
trying to learn Par Yom ha'Kipurim from Par He'elam Davar (regarding 'es',
'be'Dam 've'Taval') via a 'Kal-va'Chomer' from the fact that ...
- ... it is similar to the Sa'ir Yom ha'Kipurim (regarding the Avodos)?
- ... the Par He'elam Davar shel Tzibur is similar to the Se'irei Avodas-Kochavim (regarding the Avodos)?
(a) So what is Tana de'Bei Rebbi Yishmael referring to when he says ''u'Mah
be'Makom she'Lo Hushvah Korban le'Korban'?
(b) Seeing as there are differences between them (as we shall see), what did
Tana de'Bei Rebbi Yishmael have in mind when he said 'Hushvu Ma'asim
(c) What are the two major differences between the Avodah of the Par He'elam
Davar and the Sa'ir shel Yom ha'Kipurim?
(d) And we learn the Par Yom ha'Kipurim (with regard to 'es', 'be'Dam' and
'Tevilah') with a 'Kal va'Chomer from the Par He'elam Davar shel Tzibur.
From where do we learn Sa'ir Yom ha'Kipurim, in this regard?
(a) From where did we learn 'es', 'be'Dam' and 'Taval' by Se'irei Avodas
Answers to questions
(b) What problem does that create with the previous D'rashah?
(c) How does Rav Papa resolve the problem?