REVIEW QUESTIONS ON GEMARA AND RASHI
prepared by Rabbi Eliezer Chrysler
Kollel Iyun Hadaf, Jerusalem
Previous daf Zevachim 11
ZEVACHIM 11-15 - Sponsored by a generous grant from an anonymous donor.
Kollel Iyun Hadaf is indebted to him for his encouragement and support and
prays that Hashem will repay him in kind.
(a) On what grounds does Rava from Barnish refute the 'Tzad ha'Shaveh' from
Olah and Minchas Chotei to validate an Asham whose blood entered the Kodesh?
(b) So how does he learn it from the Pasuk in Tzav (in connection with the
blood of a Chatas whose blood was taken into the Kodesh "Asher Yuva
(c) Rebbi Eliezer learns "Damah", 've'Lo Besarah'.
From where do the
Rabbanan learn this?
(d) What does Rebbi Eliezer learn from "Dam" "Damah"?
(a) How do the Rabbanan explain the Pasuk in Tzav (in connection with the
Minchah) "Kodesh Kodashim Hi ka'Chatas ve'cha'Asham".
When does the Torah
compare a Minchah to a Chatas, and when does it compare it to an Asham?
(b) How does this create a problem with Rebbi Eliezer?
(c) To explain the Pasuk according to Rebbi Eliezer, we establish him like
Rebbi Shimon. In a case where the Kohen took the Kometz to the Mizbe'ach in
his hand, without a K'li Shareis, the Tana Kama in the Mishnah in Menachos
invalidates the Korban.
What does Rebbi Shimon say?
(a) Rav Yehudah b'rei de'Rebbi Chiya bases Rebbi Shimon's opinion on
How does he explain it? What two options does
the Kohen have in carrying the Minchah?
(b) What do we learn from the Pasuk "Ve'lakach *ha'Kohen* mi'Dam ha'Chatas
(c) By Asham too, the Torah writes 'Kehunah'.
Why does Rebbi Shimon permit
using the left hand?
(d) What do the Chachamim say?
(a) We conclude that Rebbi Shimon learns the Pasuk ("Kodesh Kodashim Hi
ka'Chatas ve'cha'Asham") like Rav Yehudah b'rei de'Rebbi Chiya explained.
From where does he then learn that a Minchas Chotei is Pasul she'Lo
(b) According to the Rabbanan in our Mishnah (who validate an Asham that is
brought she'Lo li'Shemo), why does the Torah write "ka'Chatas ve'cha'Asham"?
(a) According to Rebbi Yochanan, Yosef ben Choni (in our Mishnah) and Rebbi
Eliezer (in a Beraisa) say one and the same thing.
What is that?
(b) Rabah maintains that Rebbi Eliezer agrees with Yosef ben Choni in a case
where someone Shechts another Korban as a Pesach.
In which case does he
then argue with him?
(c) Rebbi Eliezer renders Pasul a Pesach in its second year or other
Korbanos that one Shechted on the fourteenth as a Pesach.
What does Rebbi
(d) What 'Kal-va'Chomer' does Rebbi Yehoshua learn, based on other Korbanos
that are Kasher, even if one Shechted them during the year as a Pesach?
(a) Rebbi Eliezer counters Rebbi Yehoshua with the reverse 'Kal-va'Chomer'.
What does he learn from the fact that a Pesach during the year, which is not
Kasher as a Pesach, is Kasher as a Shelamim?
(b) Why is this Kal va'Chomer unacceptable?
(c) What does Rebbi Eliezer set out to prove with this (false) 'Kal
(d) And what 'Pircha' does Rebbi Eliezer ask on Rebbi Yehoshua's
'Kal -va'Chomer'? Why is Acherim le'Shem Pesach on the fourteenth worse than
a Pesach le'Shem Acherim during the year?
(a) What does Rebbi Yochanan now prove from here?
(b) How does Rebbi Yehoshua counter Rebbi Eliezer's second Kashya?
(c) So Rebbi Eliezer tries another angle.
What does he try to prove from
the fact that a Pesach, whose Moser is brought as a Shelamim, is Pasul if he
brings it on the fourteenth as a Shelamim?
(d) How does Rebbi Yehoshua counter that with a similar Limud from a Chatas,
whose Moser is brought as an Olah, yet it is Pasul if it is brought as an
(a) How does Rebbi Eliezer counter Rebbi Yehoshua's counter proof?
Answers to questions
(b) What might Rebbi Eliezer have answered?
(c) What does Rabah prove from the fact that he didn't?
(a) According to Rav Ashi and Rav Acha b'rei de'Rava in the name Rebbi
Yochanan and Rebbi Yanai respectively, what does Shimon Achi Azaryah learn
from the Pasuk in Emor "ve'Lo Yechalelu es Kodshei B'nei Yisrael es Asher
(b) How does Shmuel learn from the same Pasuk that someone who eats Tevel is
(c) Seeing as Misah is not mentioned in this Pasuk, how does Shmuel know
that one is Chayav Misah too?
(d) In view of Shimon Achi Azaryah's D'rashah, how can Shmuel learn this
(a) Shimon Achi Azaryah says 'Kodshim Kalim le'Shem Kodshei Kodshim
Kesheirim'. Rebbi Zeira is not sure what he means by 'Kesheirim'.
the two possible explanations?
(b) And what does Rebbi Zeira mean when he says that if Shimon Achi Azaryah
means 'Kesheirim u'Meratzin', then he argues with the Tana Kama in two
points? Which two points?
(a) How does Abaye attempt to resolve Rebbi Zeira's She'eilah from the Seifa
of our Mishnah 'Bechor u'Ma'aser she'Shachtan le'Shem Shelamim, Kesheirim'?
(b) How do we refute Abaye's proof from there? What does 'Ha ke'de'Isa ve'Ha
(c) In that case (if the Seifa does not come to reflect on the Reisha),
having already learned 'Kodshim Kalim le'Shem Kodshei Kodshim ... ', what is
then the Seifa coming to teach us?
(d) But don't we know that too, from the Mishnah in 'Kol ha'Tadir' 'Shelamim
Kodmin es ha'Bechor Mipnei she'Hein Te'unin Matan Arba ... '?
(a) Rebbi Yehoshua declares a Pesach that was Shechted in the morning of the
fourteenth she'Lo li'Shemo, Kasher.
Why is that?
(b) What does ben Beseira say?
(c) Shimon ben Azai quoting the Sanhedrin, rules that 'Kol ha'Zevachim
ha'Ne'echalin she'Nizbechu she'Lo li'Sheman Kesheirim'.
What does he mean
to preclude when he says 'ha'Ne'echalin?
(d) Which Sanhedrin was he quoting?
(a) According to Rebbi Elazar Amar Rebbi Oshayah, ben Beseira is Machshir
the whole of the fourteenth for the Korban Pesach (which explains why he
declares she'Lo li'Shemo, Pasul).
Why is that?
(b) Then why did ben Beseira say 'Ke'ilu Nishchat Bein ha'Arbayim' (seeing
as it *is* 'Bein ha'Arbayim')?
(c) Then why did ben Beseira and Rebbi Yehoshua not argue whether a Pesach
li'Shemo is Kasher in the morning (ben Beseira) or not (Rebbi Yehoshua)?
(d) How does Ula b'rei de'Rav Ila'i explain "Bein ha'Arbayim" (in Bo),
according to Rebbi Elazar Amar Rebbi Oshaya?
(a) By the same token, why do we not then permit the Korban Tamid shel Bein
ha'Arbayim to be brought in the morning?
Answers to questions
(b) Why do we then need to Darshen from the Pasuk in Tetzaveh "es ha'Keves
*ha'Echad* Ta'aseh ba'Boker", 'Echad ve'Lo Shenayim'?
(c) And how do we know that the Kohen cannot kindle the Menorah any time
during the day, since the Torah writes there too, "Bein ha'Arbayim"?
(d) Alternatively, we learn from "me'Erev ad Boker 'Ein Lecha Avodah
Kesheirah me'Erev ad Boker Ela Zu Bilevad'.
What do we mean by that?
(e) And from where do we know that the second offering of Ketores, which is
written in the same Pasuk as the Menorah in Tetzaveh, cannot be brought all