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prepared by Rabbi Eliezer Chrysler
Kollel Iyun Hadaf, Jerusalem

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Yoma 5


(a) Why can we not interpret the Pasuk in Vayikra "ve'Samach ve'Nirtza" literally?

(b) Then what *does* it mean?

(c) Which other of the Korban's requirements follows exactly the same pattern as Semichah (with regard to all the points that we just mentioned?

(a) Is the seven-day Hafrashah Me'akev by the Milu'im, according to ...
  1. ... Rebbi Yochanan?
  2. ... Rebbi Chanina?
(b) From where do we know that Hafrashah is not Me'akev the Avodah on Yom Kipur?

(c) According to Ravina, the difference between Rebbi Yochanan and Rebbi Chanina is whether they require both Ribuy Shiv'ah and Meshichah Shiv'ah. Meshichah Shiv'ah means that the Kohen Gadol must be anointed with the anointing oil for seven consecutive days.
What did the anointing comprise?

(d) What does 'Ribuy Shiv'ah' mean?

(a) What is the meaning of the term 'Miluy Yadayim'.

(b) What do we learn from the Pasuk in Tetzaveh ...

  1. ... "Shiv'as Yamim Yilbasham ha'Kohen"?
  2. ... " ... va'Asher Yemalei es Yadam"?
  3. ... "Asher Yimshach Osam"?
(c) The Torah does not actually mention Meshichah in the Din of seven days (as it does wearing the eight garments). In the Gemara's *second* explanation, we learn it from the Hekesh of "Yilbasham" to "Yemalei es Yadam".
What is the Gemara's *first* explanation?

(d) What else do we learn from the Pasuk "Asher Yimshach Osam va'Asher Yemalei es Yadam "?

(a) What do we learn from the word "Kachah" (Tetzaveh)?

(b) Then why do we need the 'Gezeirah Shavah' of "Pesach" (Tetzaveh) "Pesach" (Tzav)?

(c) But doesn't the Torah write "Venasata el Choshen ha'Mishpat es ha'Urim ve'es ha'Tumim" - in Parshas Tetzaveh?

Answers to questions



(a) What does Rav Mesharshaya learn from the Pasuk in Tzav "u'Shemartem es Mishmeres Hashem", and Rav Ashi from "Ki Chein Tzuveisi"?

(b) What is the advantage of Rav Mesharshaya's Derashah over the 'Gezeirah- Shavah'?

(a) The Gemara then takes the opportunity to elaborate on similar phrases in Parshas Shemini:
Why does the Torah need to write ...
  1. ... "Kechu es ha'Minchah ha'Noseres me'Ishei Hashem ve'Ichluha Matzos ... *Ka'asher Tzuveisi*"?
  2. ... (regarding the burnt goat of the Chatas Rosh Chodesh) "Achol Tochlu Osah ba'Kodesh Ka'asher Tziveisi"?
  3. ... (regarding the Chazeh and the Shok of the Milu'im "Ka'asher Tzivah Hashem"?
(b) What was Moshe's basic mistake in 2.?
(a) We learn from the word "*ve'Zeh* ha'Davar Asher Ta'aseh Lahem Lekadesh Osam Lechahen" (in Tetzaveh) that the Kohanim had to wear the pants during the Avodah of the Milu'im, even though they are not mentioned in the Parshah.
How do we learn this from "ve'Zeh"?

(b) What else do we learn from "ve'Zeh" that is not mentioned in the Parshah of Milu'im? How do we learn it from there?

(a) We learn from Pesukim in Tetzaveh that Moshe was also commanded to read the Parshah of Milu'im during the seven days of Milu'im.
How do we learn from the Pasuk in Tzav "Zeh ha'Davar Asher Tzivah Hashem" that that too is Me'akev (Note: Whenever we learn from the fact that something is repeated in the Parshah of Tzav, when the Milu'im was actually performed, the Gemara is merely applying the principle that, in the realm of Kodshim, a repeated word or phrase means that it is Me'akev.)

(b) The Gemara then discusses how Moshe dressed Aharon and his sons for the Milu'im.
What problem do we have with this?

(c) So why does the Gemara nonetheless find it necessary to explain it to us?

(a) The sons of Rebbi Chiya and Rebbi Yochanan argue over the order of dressing. Based on Pesukim, one of them says that Moshe first dressed Aharon and then his sons.
What does the other one say?

(b) Which two garments do they all agree that Moshe dressed Aharon first?

(c) Are the pants not included in this statement? Why are they not mentioned?

(d) What do some learn from ...

  1. ... the sequence of the Pesukim in Tzav "Vayachgor *Oso* ba'Avneit" and then "Vayachgor *Osam* Avneit"?
  2. ... "Vechagarta *Osam* Avneit Aharon u'Vanav" (in Tetzaveh)?
(a) How do those who maintain that Aharon and his sons were dressed simultaneously explain the sequence of the Pesukim in Tzav? Why does the Torah separate the two?

(b) And according to those who hold that Moshe dressed Aharon first, why, in Tetzaveh, does the Torah mention them together as if they were dressed simultaneously?

(c) What does simultaneously mean anyway? How could Moshe possibly dress them all at the same time?

Answers to questions
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