REVIEW QUESTIONS ON GEMARA AND RASHI
prepared by Rabbi Eliezer Chrysler
Kollel Iyun Hadaf, Jerusalem
Previous daf Yevamos 107
YEVAMOS 107 - this Daf has been dedicated by Herb Smilowitz and family of W.
Orange N.J. May they be blessed with health and long years, and continue to
see much Yiddishe Nachas from all of their children!
***** Perek Beis Shamai *****
(a) Beis Shamai permit only an Arusah to make Miy'un. He also restricts it
to Miy'un with the husband, but not with the Yavam.
Which other two
restrictions does Beis Shamai place on the girl?
(b) What do Beis Hillel say?
(c) Beis Hillel permit a Ketanah to make Miy'un any number of times.
do Beis Shamai say?
(a) Rav Yehudah Amar Shmuel ascribes Beis Shamai's reason for restricting
Miy'un with an Arusah to the principle 'Ein T'nai be'Nisu'in'.
What is Beis Hillel's reason? Is it because they do not agree with the
principle of 'Ein T'nai be'Nisu'in'?
(b) Does it also apply to Chupah, or only to Bi'ah?
(c) It certainly does not apply to a case where the father handed her over
to the husband's Sh'luchim (to take her to the Chupah).
Then why do Beis
Shamai not permit Miy'un at that stage?
(d) Why can the text 'where the father handed her over to the husband's
Sh'luchim' not be literal? What then does the Gemara mean to say?
(a) Rabah and Rav Yosef ascribe Beis Shamai's reason to the principle 'Ein
Adam Oseh Be'ilaso Be'ilas Z'nus'.
How does that explain Beis Shamai
prohibiting girls from making Miy'un?
(b) Will this also apply to a girl who is married but who did not yet
(c) On what grounds do Beis Hillel then argue?
(d) According to Rav Papa, both Beis Shamai and Beis Hillel base their
reason on the Peiros of Nichsei mi'Lug (which a man may only use after the
Why, according to ...
- ... Beis Shamai, is that a reason to forbid Miy'un after marriage?
- ... Beis Hillel, is that a reason to permit it?
(a) According to Rava, Beis Shamai's reason for prohibiting a married girl
to perform Miy'un, is because of the principle 'Ein Adam Tore'ach bi'Se'udah
How does this explain the prohibition?
(b) How do Beis Hillel counter that?
(a) Rebbi Oshaya explains that, when Beis Hillel permit Miy'un, even on the
Yavam, they mean to remove the Ma'amar, but not the Zikah.
Answers to questions
What are the
ramifications of his statement?
(b) According to Rav Chisda, this is because Ma'amar is done with the
Yevamah's consent, whereas the Zikah, which comes against her will, she does
not have the power to remove.
On what grounds do we refute Rav Chisda's
(c) So how do we differentiate between Bi'ah and Ma'amar on the one hand
(where she can make Miy'un) and Zikah on the other (where she cannot)?
(a) Ula disagrees with Rebbi Oshaya.
On what basis does Ula permit the
Yevamah to make Miy'un even to remove the Zikah?
(b) We learned a Beraisa on Daf 2b. (with regard to Tzaras ha'Bas) 'Kol
she'Yecholah le'Ma'ein ve'Lo Mi'anah, Tzarasah Choletzes ve'Lo Misyabemes'.
According to Ula, why should she not perform Yibum with the Yavam *now*?
(a) According to Rav, if the Yevamah made Miy'un with one of the Yevamin,
she is forbidden to all of them.
What is his source for this?
(b) What does Shmuel say? Why is this different than the equivalent case by
(c) Rav Asi is the most lenient of all.
What does *he* say?
(d) We try to establish Rav Asi like Rebbi Oshaya, in whose opinion the
Yevamah only removes the Ma'amar (but not the Zikah), in which case, the
How do we establish him even according to Ula? Why, even if
he holds like Ula, might Rav Asi agree that, in this case, one cannot remove
the Zikah (like Rebbi Oshaya)?
(a) Ravin quoting Rebbi Yochanan rules that if the Yevamah made Miy'un with
one of the Yevamin, she is permitted to the brothers. But they did not agree
with him, he adds. Abaye explains that 'they' refers to Rav, who holds that
she is forbidden to the brothers.
What does Rava mean when he says that it
refers to Rebbi Oshaya? Why will Rav Asi agree with Rebbi Yochanan?
(b) And what do Amri Lah mean when they say that it refers to Rav Asi? Does
this preclude Rebbi Oshaya?
(a) How did Beis Shamai, who require Miy'un in the presence of the husband,
explain the fact that the Chachamim permitted the wife of Pishon the
camel-driver's wife, even though her Miy'un was performed in his absence?
(b) But if he was using her Nechsei mi'Lug, it means that they were married.
In that case, how could she make Miy'un according to Beis Shamai, who
restrict Miy'un to an Arusah?
(c) Beis Hillel do not require Miy'un to be performed in front of Beis-Din.
How does Abaye then establish the Mishnah in Nos'in al ha'Anusah, which
requires *three* for Miy'un, even like Beis Hillel?
(d) What is the Halachah? How many judges are in fact, required for Miy'un?
(a) Beis Shamai (in our Mishnah) say that after making Miy'un, the girl must
wait until she grows-up before making Miy'un and remarrying. Shmuel
explains this to mean that she must explicitly state that she still abides
by the Miy'un that she made previously, before remarrying.
How does Ula
explain the second Miy'un?
(b) How do we prove Ula right? What should Beis Shamai have said according
(a) A Ketanah may make Miy'un if she was married off by her brothers and her
Under which condition is their Kidushin not valid, so that even
Miy'un is not necessary?
(b) What kind of Ketanah does not require Miy'un, according to Rebbi Chanina
(c) According to Rebbi Eliezer, the deeds of a Ketanah are invalid.
what does he compare her?
(d) What are the ramifications of this statement (with regard to Kidushin)?
(a) Initially, they used to write in the Get Miy'un all the repetitive
phrases that the girl uses whilst making Miy'un ('Lo Ra'ina Bei, ve'Lo
Tzavina Bei ve'Leis Ana Ba'is le'Hisnasva Bei').
Answers to questions
Why did Rav Yehudah or
the Tana change this custom?
(b) What Lashon did they institute instead?