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prepared by Rabbi Eliezer Chrysler
Kollel Iyun Hadaf, Jerusalem

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Yevamos 75


(a) The Tana has quoted three Pesukim to teach us that Terumah is permitted at nightfall: "Ad Asher Yithar", "u'Ba ha'Shemesh ve'Taher" and "ad Melos Yemei Taharah".
Having written ...
  1. ... "Lo Yochal ad Asher Yithar", why did it need to write "u'Ba ha'Shemesh ve'Taher"?
  2. ... "u'Ba ha'Shemesh ve'Taher", why did it need to write "ad Melos Yemei Taharah"?
  3. ... "ad Melos Yemei Taharah", why did it need to write "Ad Asher Yithar"?
(b) On the previous Amud, we quoted Tana de'Bei Rebbi Yishmael, who establishes the Pasuk "ad Asher Yithar" by a Zav who had two sightings and a Metzora who is a Musgar. How does the Tana who disagrees with him establish the Pasuk? Is it coming to restrict Kodshim or Terumah?

(c) Seeing as, according to him, we have the Pasuk (forbidding Kodshim to be eaten) until after the Kaparah ...

  1. ..."ve'Chiper Alehah, ve'Taheirah" (with regard to a Yoledes), why do we need another Pasuk by Zav?
  2. ... "ad Asher Yithar" (with regard to a Zav), why do we need another Pasuk by Yoledes?
(a) Why do we need the Pasuk in Shemini (with regard to Terumah) ...
  1. ... "ba'Mayim Yuva ve'Tamei ad ha'Erev"?
  2. ... ve'Taher?
(b) And how do we know to establish the former Pasuk by Terumah, and the latter by Ma'aser and not vice-versa?
(a) The Tana of the Beraisa learns the Isur of touching Terumah be'Tum'ah from another source.
What does he learn from "be'Chol Kodesh Lo Siga, ve'el ha'Mikdash Lo Savo"?

(b) What do we learn from ...

  1. ... the Hekesh of Kodesh to Mikdash?
  2. ... the fact that the Pasuk uses the Lashon "Lo Siga"?
(a) Rebbi Elazar (ben P'das) establishes our Mishnah, which permits the wife of a Kohen who became a P'tzu'a Daka to eat Terumah, as long as there has been no Bi'ah, like Rebbi Elazar and Rebbi Shimon, who permit a woman who is betrothed to someone whose Bi'ah is Pasul. On what grounds does Rebbi Yochanan establish our Mishnah even like Rebbi Meir who forbids it?

(b) How does Rebbi Elazar discredit Rebbi Yochanan's proof?

(c) How does Rebbi Yochanan refute Rebbi Elazar's counter-proof?

(a) Is someone whose Beitzim are holed or shriveled considered a P'tzu'a Daka?

(b) We learned in our Mishnah that someone whose one Beitzah is crushed, is also considered a P'tzu'a Daka.
What does Rebbi Yochanan ben Berokah quoting the Chachamim in Kerem be'Yavneh say about this?

(c) What problem do we have with his statement ' ... Eino Ela S'ris Chamah, ve'Kasher'?

(d) How do we amend it?

Answers to questions



(a) What did Shmuel send to Rav, when he heard about a certain man who had children, even though his Beitzim had been pierced by a thorn?

(b) What did Rava deduce from the fact that the Torah speaks about "P'tzu'a Daka" and not "ha'Patzu'a Daka"?

(c) The Tana of the Beraisa learns the same thing from a 'Gezeirah-Shavah' from "Yavo" "Yavo".
From where does he learn it?

(d) The Pesulim of cut, severed and crushed, apply to three cases, the Milah and the Beitzim are two of them.
What is the third?

(a) What does Rava try to prove from the fact that the Torah does not mention (how many) generations (are forbidden) in the case of P'tzu'a Daka?

(b) Why in fact, does the Torah not do so?

(c) Then from where do we know that P'tzu'a Daka refers to the Milah and not to the head (see following question)?

(d) And how do we know that K'rus Shafchah refers to the Milah ...

  1. ... and not to the lips? ...
  2. ... or the nose?
8) From where does the Tana of the Beraisa learn that K'rus Shafchah refers to the Milah?


(a) What did Rebbi Asi tell Rebbi Chiya bar Aba when he wanted to validate someone whose Milah was holed diagonally, so that one end of the hole was above the crown and the other end, below it?

(b) What did Rabah Tosfa'ah answer Ravina, when he asked him if 'as thin as a thread' (with regard to the flesh of the Atarah - that the Tana permits in our Mishnah) referred to *all the way* across all whether *most of the way* would suffice?

(c) And what did he mean when he added 'towards the top'?

(a) Rav Huna validates someone whose Milah is cut ke'Kulmus (like a pen), but invalidates him if it is cut ke'Marzev (like a pipe).
What does he mean? What is his reason?

(b) What does Rav Chisda say?

(c) Rava agrees with Rav Huna.
How does he refute Rav Chisda's argument from the tap of a barrel (according to the text 'ke'Marzev G'rid, ke'Kulmus Eino G'rid')?

(a) Ravina quoting Mar Zutra Amar Rav Papa validated both ke'Kulmus and ke'Marzev.
What is strange about his query to Mereimar, whether Mar Zutra was speaking below the Atarah or above it?

(b) Then why did he ask it?

(c) What did Mar bar Rav Ashi do when a case of Marzev occurred in Masa Machsaya?

(d) And what did Rav Papi say when Rav Bibi bar Abaye wanted to validate a man whose Zera duct was stopped up so that the Zera was being emitted through the urine duct?

Answers to questions

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