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prepared by Rabbi Eliezer Chrysler
Kollel Iyun Hadaf, Jerusalem

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Yevamos 71


(a) What do we learn from the Pasuk in Bo (in connection with the Korban Pesach) ...
  1. ... "Kol ben Neichar La Yochal *Bo*"?
  2. ... "Kol Areil Lo Yochal *Bo*"?
(b) Having taught us that ...
  1. ... an Areil is forbidden to eat the Pesach, why does the Torah need to write "Kol ben Neichar ... "?
  2. ... a Mumar (whose ways are estranged from Hashem) is forbidden, why does it need to write "Kol Areil ... "?
(c) Rebbi Akiva, who derives the prohibition for an Areil to eat Terumah from "Ish Ish", permits an Onan to eat from "ve'Chol Zar" (in the same manner as Rebbi Eliezer did). Rava however, based on the Pasuk "Ish Ish", gives a different reason than he gave there for including an Onan, and precluding an Areil (even if Areil would not have more stringencies than Onan).
What is his reason?
(a) On what grounds do we reject Rav Sh'maya's suggestion that Rebbi Akiva learns from "Toshav ve'Sachir" of Pesach that a circumcised Arab or Giv'oni is disqualified from eating it? What does the Mishnah in Nedarim say in this regard?

(b) Then whom *does* "Toshav ve'Sachir" come to preclude?

(c) Why should a Katan who is born Mahul not be able to eat the Korban Pesach, according to Rebbi Akiva?

(a) Rebbi Eliezer uses "Toshav ve'Sachir" for a 'Gezeirah-Shavah', because he disagrees with Rebbi Akiva in both issues.
What does he hold regarding ...
  1. ... a Ger who had B'ris Milah but who did not yet Tovel?
  2. ... a Katan who is born Mahul?
(b) What does Rebbi Eliezer learn from "Ish Ish"?
(a) Rav Chama bar Ukva asks whether one may anoint a Katan Areil with Terumah oil.
What is a Katan Areil?

(b) Why would anointing with Terumah oil be forbidden anyway, seeing as it is not being eaten?

(a) The Torah forbids *Shechting* the Pesach if one has uncircumcised sons (from the Pasuk "ve'Az Yikrav la'Asoso"), and *eating* it if one has uncircumcised Avadim (from "Az Yochal Bo").
What does the Beraisa learn from the 'Gezeirah-Shavah' "Az" "Az"?

(b) How would one have uncircumcised Avadim at the time of eating but not at the time of Shechting?

(c) How do we attempt to resolve Rav Chama bar Ukva's She'eilah (in 4a.) by similarly establishing the case of an uncircumcised son?

(d) How does Rava reject this proof (from the Pasuk itself)?

(a) So Rava establishes the Beraisa by a case of Chaltzaso Chamah.
What is a 'Chaltzaso Chamah'?

(b) How many days after his recovery must we be speaking for it not to be considered 'Arlus she'Lo bi'Z'manah'?

(c) Why can he not be circumcised in the morning (before the time that the Shechitah falls due)?

(d) Considering that we do not normally need to wait 'me'Es le'Es' on the eighth day before performing the B'ris Milah, how will Rava resolve the previous statement with the Beraisa cited by Luda'ah 'Yom Havra'aso ke'Yom Hivaldo' (the day that he is cured is like the day that he is born)? What is then the Chidush of the Beraisa?

Answers to questions



(a) According to Rav Papa, the Beraisa speaks about a baby whose eyes were hurting at the time of the Shechitas ha'Pesach.
How long does one need to wait for a baby whose eyes stop hurting before circumcising him?

(b) Rava establishes the case by a baby whose parents were in prison at the time of the Shechitah and were freed before the time of eating.
Why did 'Beis-Din' not circumcise the baby?

(c) How did they manage to Shecht their Pesach?

(d) Rav Kahana Brei de'Rav Nechemyah establishes the case by a baby who was born a Tumtum and whose skin was torn open, revealing that he was a male only after the time of the Shechitah. Rav Sh'ravyah establishes it by a baby whose head emerged from the womb eight days earlier and whose body emerged only between the Shechitah of the Pesach and the time of eating.
What problem do we have in connection with the survival of the baby? How does it survive until its birth?

(a) How *did* the baby survive for eight days without eating?

(b) Whose fever sustained him?

(c) How is it nevertheless possible for even a healthy baby to survive for such a long period without eating?

(a) Given that Yisrael were Areilim when they crossed the Yarden, what does Rebbi Yochanan Amar Rebbi Ban'ah prove from the Pasuk in Yehoshua "ve'ha'Am Alu min ha'Yarden be'Asor la'Chodesh ha'Rishon"? When did Yehoshua circumcise them?

(b) On what grounds do we assume that they ...

  1. ... were Tamei Meis at the time?
  2. ... did not receive the first Haza'ah from the ashes of the Parah Adumah on the eleventh, after the B'ris Milah?
(c) And how do we know ...
  1. ... that they brought the Pesach at all that year?
  2. ... that it was not a Pesach ha'Ba be'Tum'ah (seeing as most of the people were Tamei)?
10) Why can our Sugya not be referring to the Haza'ah that follows the Milah, because of the principle 'Kol ha'Poresh min ha'Arlah, ke'Poresh min ha'Kever'?


(a) What does the Pasuk in Yehoshua mean when it writes ...
  1. ... ba'Eis ha'Hi Amar Hashem el Yehoshua ... ve'*Shuv* Mol es B'nei Yisrael ... "?
  2. ... "Sheinis"? What does 'Sof Milah' mean?
(b) What does Rabah bar Yitzchak infer from the fact that Yehoshua had to perform the P'riy'ah on the whole of Yisrael (with regard to the Milah of Avraham Avinu)?
(a) Perhaps the B'nei Yisrael did not circumcise their children in the desert because they were weak.
What other reason might have prevented them from doing so?

(b) How did the fact that the north-wind did not blow prevent them from circumcising their children?

(a) Perhaps the north-wind did not blow because they were in Cherem (because of the Golden Calf - see also Tosfos 72a. DH 'Nizufin Hayu').
What other reason might have caused it not to blow?

(b) What does Rav Papa extrapolate from the above, regarding a cloudy day?

(c) To which other occasion, besides a cloudy day, does this Halachah pertain?

(d) What ramifications does the Pasuk in Tehilim "Shomer Pesayim Hashem" have in this regard?

Answers to questions

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