REVIEW QUESTIONS ON GEMARA AND RASHI
prepared by Rabbi Eliezer Chrysler
Kollel Iyun Hadaf, Jerusalem
Previous daf Yevamos 69
(a) We just learnt from "u'Bas Kohen Ki Sihyeh Almanah u'Gerushah ... " that
the Bi'ah of an Akum and Eved invalidate a bas Kohen from eating Terumah.
From where do we know that the same will apply to a bas Levi or a bas
Yisrael (even if she has a child from a Kohen)?
(b) On what grounds do we refute the suggestion to learn from "Almanah
u'Gerushah ve'Zera Ein Lah" that when there is no Almenus ve'Geirushin, they
may eat *as long as there is no child*, whereas when there is not, they may
eat even when there *is*?
(c) Perhaps we need to include a Levi'ah and Yisre'eilis who has a child
from a Kohen, in the prohibition of eating Terumah if she then marries a
Yisrael, who dies leaving her with a child from him?
(a) How will Rebbi Akiva (in whose opinion, Kidushin is not effective by
Chayvei La'avin), explain "u'Bas Kohen *Ki Sih'yeh* le'Ish Zar"?
(b) According to him, the Torah writes "Almanah u'Gerushah" to be stringent
with the former and lenient with the latter.
What does this mean?
(c) Having already taught us that ...
1. ... a Kohenes who is an Almanah is permitted to eat Terumah again, when
her husband who is a Yisrael dies leaving her without children, why is it
necessary to add a Gerushah?
2. ... a Kohenes who is a Gerushah is forbidden to eat Terumah, when her
husband who is a Yisrael dies leaving her with children, why is it necessary
to add an Almanah?
(a) What do we learn from the Pasuk ...
(b) And what do we learn from the Pasuk (with regard to a Kohen Gadol who
maried an Almanah) "Lo Yechalel *Zar'o*"?
- ... "u'Bas Kohen Ki Sih'yeh *le'Ish Zar*"?
- ... "Lo *Yechalel Zar'o* be'Amav"?
(c) From where do we know that Bi'ah (and not Kidushin) and that Bi'ah alone
(even without Kidushin) invalidates a woman from Terumah and from Kehunah?
(a) Rebbi Yossi disagrees with the Tana Kama in the Beraisa currently under
discussion. According to him, it is only a Pasul whose child is also Pasul
who invalidates a bas Kohen from eating Terumah.
In which case does he
(b) They both derive their ruling from the same source.
(c) Raban Shimon ben Gamliel is even more lenient than Rebbi Yossi.
According to him, whenever a Kohen is permitted to marry the daughter of
someone who is Pasul, he is also permitted to marry his widow.
case is he more lenient than Rebbi Yossi?
(d) What will Rebbi Yossi hold by a Ger Amoni and a Ger Mo'avi?
(a) What do O'nes, Mefateh and a Shoteh have in common?
Answers to questions
(b) In which case do even O'nes and Mefateh invalidate, too?
(c) We learned above that a fetus invalidates a bas Kohen to a Yisrael from
eating Terumah, and does not feed a bas Yisrael to a Kohen Terumah.
will be the Din if a Yisrael raped a bas Kohen, she became pregnant and the
fetus died in her womb?
(d) In which case is the strength of the son greater than that of the
(a) An Eved Kena'ani invalidates a bas Kohen from Terumah through Bi'ah.
Does he invalidate his grandmother who is a bas Kohen, if he is her only
offspring? What is the case?
A bas Kohen marries a Yisrael and they have a daughter. The daughter then
marries a Kohen and they have a son who is fit to be a Kohen Gadol.
(b) If, by the same token, his grandmother is a bas Yisrael who married a
Kohen, may she eat Terumah on his account?
(c) If the daughter of a bas Yisrael to a Kohen or of a bas Kohen to a
Yisrael 'marries' an Eved or a Nochri (see Tosfos DH 've'Niseis'), and they
have a child, what is the status of that child?
(d) Does that Mamzer ...
- ... feed his grandmother who is a bas Yisrael to a Kohen?
- ... invalidate his grandmother who is a bas Kohen to a Yisrael?
dual function does this 'Kohen Gadol' play? What does his grandmother have
to say about him?
(a) Our Mishnah (which includes a Shoteh among the 'Ein Posel u'Ma'achilin')
supports the Beraisa, which exempts the wife of a Shoteh from both Yibum and
What does this prove?
(b) Who else does the Beraisa incorporate together with a Shoteh?
(a) How does Rabah bar Rav Huna explain the fact that, on the one hand, the
Tana of our Mishnah holds that an Ubar invalidates his mother from eating
Terumah, whilst on the other, he permits her to eat (after being raped by a
Yisrael), without requiring her to wait three months in case she is
(b) From where does he know that Chazal contended with the pregnancy
(c) He is forced to retract from this contention however, on account of a
What does the Beraisa say about a man who gives his wife a Get
which is valid only an hour before his death? Why does this force us to
(d) What do we mean when we explain that Rabah bar Rav Huna really
differentiated between adultery and marriage? What is his reason for this
(a) How will Rabah bar Rav Huna (who, as we just saw, is concerned about
pregnancy, even with regard to Terumah, in the case of a married woman),
explain the Beraisa which permits a bas Kohen whose husband (who was a
Yisrael) died, to Tovel and eat Terumah that same evening?
(b) And how will he explain the Seifa of the Beraisa, which states that, the
moment it becomes recognizable that she is pregnant, she is Pasul
(c) In the case under discussion, when did the Yisrael marry the bas Kohen?
(a) Even if both the man and the woman who are betrothed admit that he is
the father of the baby to whom she gave birth, Rav maintains that the baby
is a Mamzer.
Why is that?
(b) What does Shmuel say?
(a) Rava establishes the Machlokes of Rav and Shmuel when there are rumors
of her having had relations with other men too. Why is Rav more strict in
this case, than by a married woman, where we simply ignore rumors of this
(b) Rava's source that when there are no rumors, even Rav will agree that
the child is not a Mamzer, lies in our Mishnah, which says 'Yaldah, Tochal'.
How does he prove his point from there?
(c) Abaye disagrees. According to him, even if there is no reason to suspect
her of adultery with other men, Rav declares the child to be a Mamzer.
Then how does he establish our Mishnah? Why does the Tana say 'Yaldah,
(a) In the second Lashon, Rava maintains that if we have reason to suspect
that she committed adultery both with other men and with her betrothed, we
assume that the child is his.
Answers to questions
Why is that?
(b) Then in which case does he establish the Machlokes between Rav and
(c) How does Rava prove from 'Yaldah Tochal' in our Mishnah, that Rav will
most certainly agree that, when there are rumors that she committed adultery
both with other men and with her betrothed, we will assume the child to be
his, and that he declares the child a Mamzer only when the rumors are
confined to other men exclusively?
(d) Abaye disagrees. According to him, even if the rumors incorporate the
betrothed as well as others, Rav will declare the child a Mamzer. Then how
will he explain 'Yaldah, Tochal', in our Mishnah?