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prepared by Rabbi Eliezer Chrysler
Kollel Iyun Hadaf, Jerusalem

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Yevamos 35

YEVAMOS 35 (26 Teves) - dedicated towards the support of Kollel Iyun Hadaf in memory of Rochel Chava bas Yitzchok Leib (on her Yahrzeit) by her son, Yaakov Wollner of Baltimore.


(a) How do we reconcile Shmuel (who says that we decree a Ketanah - forbidding her to marry for three months after a Bi'as Z'nus) with our Mishnah, which says 'Im Hayu Ketanos she'Einan Re'uyos Leiled, Machzirin Osan Miyad'?

(b) Does this mean that this case actually happened?

(a) According to the second Lashon in Shmuel, to which sort of Giyores and Meshuchreres is the Tana referring?

(b) Is Shmuel, in this Lashon, speaking about Miy'un, a Get or Z'nus?

(c) Why, according to Shmuel, did Chazal not decree on a Giyores and Meshuchreres who are Gedolos, seeing as Z'nus by them is common?

(d) What does ...

  1. ... Rebbi Yehudah say about a Giyores, a Shevuyah (a captive who has been set free) and a Meshuchreres?
  2. ... Rebbi Yossi hold? Does he agree with Rebbi Yehudah in any case of Z'nus?
(a) In which cases does Shmuel *rule* like Rebbi Yossi, and in which cases does he *not*?

(b) How does Rabah initially explain Rebbi Yossi? Why, in his opinion, does Rebbi Yossi permit every woman who is Mezaneh to get betrothed and married immediately?

(c) Most cases of Giyores, Shevuyah and Meshuchreres might anticipate the impending change and walk around with a cloth to safeguard themselves.
By which case is it not possible to say that?

(d) So what reason does *Abaye* (who also asked the question) give to explain Rebbi Yossi?

(a) What is the problem with our Mishnah, which says 've'Im Hayu Kohanos, Nifselu min ha'Terumah?

(b) We try to amend the Mishnah to read 've'Im Hayu Neshei Kohanim ... ', but refute this answer on the basis of Rav Amram quoting Rav Sheishes. What does Rav Sheishes say? How does that refute the above explanation?

(c) So how does Rava explain our Mishnah?

***** Hadran Alach Arba'ah Achin *****

Answers to questions


***** Perek ha'Choletz li'Yevimto *****


(a) If the Yavam performs Chalitzah, and the Yevamah is then found to be pregnant, and subsequently gives birth, what will be the Din regarding marrying each other's relatives and her status as regards marrying a Kohen, should she give birth to ...
  1. ... a healthy baby?
  2. ... a still-born baby?
(b) And what will be the Din with regard to sending her away and the obligation to bring a Korban, in the same case if, instead of Chalitzah, he performs Yibum with her and she then gives birth ...
  1. ... to a healthy baby?
  2. ... to a still-born baby?
(a) Rebbi Yochanan holds that if a Yavam makes Chalitzah with a pregnant Yevamah, who subsequently loses her baby, she does not require Chalitzah from the brothers.
What does Resh Lakish say?

(b) Does the same apply to a Yevamah with whom the Yavam performed Yibum under similar circumstances?

(c) What is the logical basis of their Machlokes?

(d) How do Rebbi Yochanan and Resh Lakish also learn their respective opinions from the Pasuk "u'Vein Ein Lo"?

(a) How does Resh Lakish explain our Mishnah, which states that if, after the Chalitzah, the Yevamah gave birth to a still-born baby, both the Yavam and the Yevamah are forbidden to marry each other's relatives and the Yevamah is Pasul from marrying a Kohen? Seeing as the Chalitzah is not valid in his opinion, why is she Pasul from marrying a Kohen?

(b) Alternatively, it is Resh Lakish, who asks why, according to Rebbi Yochanan, the Tana says 'Paslah min ha'Kehunah' (le'Chumra, and not 'Einah Tzerichah Chalitzah min ha'Achim', le'Kula), seeing as, in his opinion, the Chalitzah is valid.
How does Rebbi Yochanan deal with this Kashya?

(c) And how does Resh Lakish explain the Mishnah which says that if the Yavam performed Yibum with the Yevamah and the baby turned out to be a still-born child, he may retain her, seeing as the original Bi'ah, according to him, is not valid? What does 'de'Lo Sagi be'La'av Hachi' mean?

(d) Alternatively, it is Resh Lakish who asks why, according to Rebbi Yochanan, the Tana says 'Yekayeim' and not 'Ratzah Yotzi, Ratzah Yekayeim'. How does Rebbi Yochanan explain this?

(a) The Beraisa forbids the Tzarah of a Yevamah who performed Yibum and then discovered that she is pregnant, to marry le'Shuk, 'in case the baby turns out to be one that lives', an obvious mistake, because, if anything, the baby living is reason to *permit* her to marry (and not to forbid it).
How do we initially amend the Beraisa?

(b) How is this Beraisa now a Kashya on Rebbi Yochanan?

(c) How do we then try to amend the wording of the Machlokes between Rebbi Yochanan and Resh Lakish by differentiating between Yibum and Chalitzah?

(d) On what grounds does Rava reject this amendment?

(a) How does Rava therefore amend the Beraisa? What aspect does he add that explains why the Tzarah cannot get married immediately?

(b) Why will even Rebbi Yochanan agree with this, even though he holds the Bi'ah of a Me'uberes is valid?

(c) How do we know that Rava's explanation is authoritative?

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