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prepared by Rabbi Eliezer Chrysler
Kollel Iyun Hadaf, Jerusalem

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Shabbos 72


(a) Why does the Gemara refer to an Asham Shifchah Charufah as an Asham Vaday? Is it the only case of Asham Vaday?

(b) A man who is Bo'el a Shifchah Charufah has to bring an Asham, whether he did so be'Shogeg or be'Meizid.
How many Ashamos will he have to bring if he is Bo'el her five times, becoming aware of the sin after each Bi'ah ...

  1. ... according to those who hold that an Asham Vadai *does* require a Yedi'ah (Rebbi Akiva)?
  2. ... according those who hold that an Asham Vadai does *not* require a Yedi'ah (Rebbi Tarfon)?
Why the difference?

(c) What does it mean not to have a Yedi'ah? How can someone who is not aware that he has sinned, be Chayav an Asham? What would the case of being Bo'el a Shifchah Charufah five times *without* a Yedi'ah, and where everybody would agree that he brings only *one* Asham?

(d) Rav Hamnuna queried the above statement of Ula's: 'In that case', he asked him, 'Will a man also be Patur from a second Asham (according to Rebbi Akiva), if, after the first Bi'ah, he asks the Kohen to wait with his Korban until he has been Bo'el again'?

(a) We initially think that, according to Rav Dimi, according to those who *do* require a Yedi'ah by an Asham Vaday, one is Chayav for each Bi'ah by a Shifchah Charufah, if he did indeed become aware of his sin before the next Bi'ah.
How does he then establish the Mishnah, which specifically states that one is only Chayav *one* Chatas, irrespective of however many Bi'os he has with her?

(b) Does Rav Dimi argue with Ula?

(c) Assuming that Rav Dimi's Chidush incorporates Resh Lakish's opinion, (in the Machlokes between Rebbi Yochanan and Resh Lakish that we learnt above with regard to 'Achal Sh'nei Zeisei Chelev, ve'Noda Lo Al ha'Echad'), what does the Gemara ask from Resh Lakish's opinion?

(d) What does the Gemara answer? How do we re-learn Rav Dimi?

(a) If a Yedi'ah in between two Be'ilos of a Shifchah Charufah does not divide, then why does a Yedi'ah in between two Kezeisei Chelev divide?

(b) How many Ashamos will he have to bring in this case - according to Rebbi Yochanan?

  1. 'ha'Kol Modim be'Shifchah Charufah' (that there *is* Chiluk Yedi'os).
  2. 've'ha'Kol Modim be'Shifchah Charufah' (that there is *no* Chiluk Yedi'os).
  3. 'u'Machlokes be'Shifchah Charufah'.
What do each of these statements mean?

Answers to questions



(a) What is the definition of a Shogeg - regarding Shabbos?

(b) What do we learn from the Pasuk in Vayikra "Asher Chata Bah" (regarding 'Niskaven Lehagbi'ah es ha'Talush')?

(c) What will be the Din if someone intends to cut a detatched vegetable, and he inadvertently cuts one that is attached (Machlokes Abaye and Rava)?
What are their respective reasons?

(a) The Beraisa writes 'Chomer Shabbos mi'She'ar Mitzvos ... she'ha'Shabbos, Asah Shetayim be'He'alam Echad, Chayav Al Kol Echad ve'Echad, Mah she'Ein Ken bi'She'ar Mitzvos'.
What is the initial problem with this Beraisa?

(b) The Gemara establishes 'She'ar Mitzvos' of the Reisha - by Avodah Zarah.
What are the four possible aspects of Avodah Zarah that one would contravene, for which one would bring only *one* Chatas?

(c) The Gemara attempts to establish the Seifa too - 've'Chomer She'ar Mitzvos mi'Shabbos, she'bi'She'ar Mitzvos, Shagag be'Lo Miskaven, Chayav, Mah she'Ein Ken, be'Shabbos' - by Avodah Zarah.
Does this mean that someone who bows down to an idol, believing it to be a Shul, is Chayav?

(d) Are we then speaking about someone who bows down to the bust of a king - in deference to the king?

7) According to Abaye, the previous Beraisa could be speaking about somebody who bows down to an idol out of love or out of fear of who the person who ordered him to do so, even though he did not do so out of conviction. Rava disagrees with Abaye. According to him, someone who bows down to an idol out of love or fear, is Patur.
Why can Rava not establish the case of 'Shogeg be'Lo Miskaven' by an 'Omer Mutar' (like a Tinok she'Nishbah')?


(a) We have just proved that, according to Rava, it is impossible to establish the Seifa of the Beraisa (of Shogeg be'Lo Miskaven) by Avodah Zarah. So he establishes it by other sins (Chelev).
What is the case?

(b) Why is one in fact, Chayav for this?

(c) What is the equivalent case by Shabbos (for which he is only Chayav *one* Chatas), and how does Rava prove his point from here?

(d) Abaye establishes the case by someone who swallows some melted Chelev, thinking it is spittle.
What is the equivalent case by Shabbos, and how does this counter Rava's proof?

Answers to questions
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