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prepared by Rabbi Eliezer Chrysler
Kollel Iyun Hadaf, Jerusalem

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Rosh Hashanah 35

ROSH HASHANAH 31-35 (Siyum!) - sponsored by a generous grant from an anonymous donor. Kollel Iyun Hadaf is indebted to him for his encouragement and support and prays that Hashem will repay him in kind.


(a) We just learned that according to Rebbi Yochanan, the Rabanan conceded to Raban Gamliel that the Shatz can be Motzi everyone with the Amidah.
How does this clash with the other statement in which he rules like Raban Gamliel?

(b) When Rebbi Aba returned from overseas, he reconciled the two statements. How did he do this?

(a) What third statement did Rebbi Yochanan make that clashes with Rebbi Aba's explanation?

(b) How does Rav Nachman bar Yitzchak finally resolve Rebbi Yochanan's statements? Who is the Tana who concedes to Raban Gamliel that the Shatz can render anyone Yotze the B'rachos of Rosh Hashanah and Yom kipur?

(c) What does Rebbi Yochanan rule with regard to the Shatz rendering Yotze the community with the Amidah during the rest of the year?

(a) We initially think that the B'rachos of Rosh Hashanah and Yom Kipur are different because they contain many Pesukim.
Which Pesukim are we talking about?

(b) We reject that contention however, on the basis of a statement by Rav Chananel Amar Rav.
What does he say? Why can he not be referring to the Pesukim of Malchuyos, Zichronos and Shofros?

(c) So why *do* Rebbi Meir and Rebbi Yochanan differentiate between the B'rachos of Rosh Hashanah and Yom Kipur and those of the rest of the year?

4) They thought that Rav Chananel Amar Rav's statement was confined to individuals, but that the Shatz must recite all the Pesukim.
What did Rebbi Yehoshua ben Levi say about that?


(a) According to Rebbi Elazar, one is required to arrange one's Tefilah before Davening (bearing in mind that the Sidur was not produced in those days). How does Rebbi Aba qualify Rebbi Elazar's statement?

(b) How do we reconcile this with Rav Yehudah, who used to prepare his regular Tefilah before he Davened?

(a) Rebbi Shimon Chasida is quoted as saying that, according to Raban Gamliel, the Shatz rendered Yotze even the people in the fields, and certainly, those who were standing in Shul.
What problem do we have with this statement?

(b) How do we substantiate this Kashya with a Beraisa, which issues a similar ruling with regard to Duchening?

(c) So what *did* Rebbi Shimon Chasida really say?

***** Hadran Alach Yom-Tov u'Selika Lah Maseches Rosh Hashanah *****

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