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prepared by Rabbi Eliezer Chrysler
Kollel Iyun Hadaf, Jerusalem

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Rosh Hashanah 30


(a) What does Rav Huna mean when he adds, with regard to the 'Amru Lo', who permit blowing in any town with a fixed Beis-Din, 've'Im Beis-Din'?

(b) The Tana of our Mishnah writes 've'*Od* Zos Haysah Yerushalayim Yeseirah al Yavneh', suggesting an extra leniency (over and above the fact that Yavneh requires a Beis-Din).
Why could he not possibly have meant that, whereas in Yerushalayim, every individual had to blow, in Yavneh, the Beis- Din blew for everyone?

(c) How do we then refute the contention (which would have disproved Rav Huna's statement) that the Tana meant that, whereas in Yerushalayim, they blew at any time of day, in Yavneh they only blew when Beis-Din were in session (from which we infer 'but not necessarily in front of Beis-Din')? If that is not what the Tana meant, then what *did* he mean?

(a) Others quote Rav Huna on the Beraisa which, commenting on the Pasuk "be'Yom ha'Kipurim Ta'aviru Shofar be'Chol Artzechem" - says 'to teach us that every individual is obligated to blow Shofar on Yom Kipur of the Yovel'; to which Rav Huna adds 've'Im Beis-Din'.
What does Rav Huna mean by that?

(b) The Tana of the Beraisa obligates blowing the Shofar on Shabbos Yom Kipur of the Yovel, adding 'Ish u'Veiso'.
Why can this not mean that his wife is obligated to blow too?

(c) Then what does it mean? How do we therefore amend the phrase?

(d) Does this also incorporate times when Beis-Din are not in session?

(a) In listing the differences between Yovel and Rosh Hashanah, the Tana writes that, whereas in Yovel, even the individuals had to blow, on Rosh Hashanah, they did not.
Why can this statement not be understood literally?

(b) So how do we initially explain the Beraisa (which results in a Kashya on Rav Huna)?

(c) How do we finally interpret it, to vindicate both versions of his statement?

4) Rebbi Zeira asks whether one will be Yotze if he blows in Yavneh on Shabbos (either on Rosh Hashanah or on Yom Kipur of the Yovel) after the Beis-Din have already closed court and are preparing to get up and leave.
What are the two sides of the unresolved She'eilah?


(a) What Takanah did Raban Yochanan ben Zakai institute with regard to ...
  1. ... Lulav being taken outside the Beis-Hamikdash? What is the Torah-law in this regard?
  2. ... eating Chadash (new crops) on the day of the Omer?
(b) What do we learn from the Pasuk in Yirmiyah "Ki A'a'leh Aruchah Lach ... Tziyon Hi Doresh Ein Lah"?
(a) Why did Raban Yochanan ben Zakai forbid the eating of Chadash on the sixteenth of Nisan?

(b) Why can his concern not have been that the Beis-Hamikdash will be built ...

  1. ... on the *sixteenth* of Nisan?
  2. ... on or before the *fifteenth*?
(c) Then what *is* his concern? When might it be built?

(d) How can we contend with the possibility that the Beis-Hamikdash might be built on Shabbos or at night-time, seeing as we are not permitted to build it on Shabbos or at night-time?

Answers to questions



(a) According to Rav Nachman bar Yitzchak, Raban Yochanan ben Zakai forbids eating Chadash on the sixteenth of Nisan min ha'Torah, like (his grand- Talmid's Talmid) Rebbi Yehudah.
From which Pasuk do they derive it?

(b) On which important principle does this interpretation of the Pasuk revolve?

(c) But did Rebbi Yehudah himself not ask how, according to Raban Yochanan ben Zakai, the prohibition can be mi'de'Rabbanan, when really it ought to be mi'd'Oraysa? Clearly then, they argue?

(d) Then why did the Tana of our Mishnah write *Hiskin* Raban Yochanan ben Zakai? Does this not imply that it is only mi'de'Rabbanan?

(a) And which Takanah did Raban Yochanan institute with regard to receiving the witnesses all day (on Rosh Chodesh Tishri)?

(b) What happened once when the witnesses came after Minchah?

(c) What Takanah had Chazal instituted until Raban Yochanan ben Zakai came and rescinded it after the Churban?

(a) In Bavel, they explained the error that occurred that year, to have been the fact that the Levi'im did not sing Shirah at all.
What does Rebbi Zeira say?

(b) Rebbi Zeira quoted a Beraisa, which he instructed his son Ahavah to show the B'nei Bavel: 'They instituted not to receive the witnesses after Minchah, in order that there should be sufficient time in the day to bring the Temidin, the Musafin and the drink-offerings *without mishap*'.
What was he trying to prove from there?

(c) How do we refute his proof?

(a) Which Shir would the Levi'im generally sing on the morning of the thirtieth of Elul? Why is that?

(b) What would they sing ...

  1. ... at Musaf, if that day was declared Rosh Hashanah?
  2. ... at Minchah (together with the Tamid shel Bein ha'Arbayim)?
  3. ... at Shachris, if the witnesses came *before* the Tamid shel Shachar, and it was a Thursday morning? Why is that?
  4. ... at Musaf, in the same case, if the witnesses came *after* the Tamid shel Shachar?
(c) Why is there no proof for Rebbi Zeira (that when there is a doubt, one says the weekday Shir (rather than refraining from saying anything) from the Beraisa, which says that if the thirtieth fell on a Thursday, they would sing "Harninu" (and repeat it should witnesses arrive before Minchah)?
Answers to questions
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