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prepared by Rabbi Eliezer Chrysler
Kollel Iyun Hadaf, Jerusalem

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Pesachim 89


(a) We just learned that if a wart is found on one of five Pesach-skins they cannot bring a Pesach Sheni, because, if they were each to bring one, then they would be bringing Chulin to the Azarah.
Why can they not ...
1. ... each bring a lamb and stipulate that if he was Yotze with the first Pesach, then this Pesach should be a Shelamim?
2. ... do exactly the same thing, resolving the problem by bringing a Kohen with him?
(b) How is it possible to circumvent this problem by bringing one Kohen with them?

(c) In that case, on what grounds *do* we reject the suggestion to bring five Pesachim and stipulate that for those who have already been Yotze, the lamb will be a Shelamim?

(d) Why can they not make this stipulation, only instead of declaring the other option to be a *Shelamim*, they declare it a *Mosar* Shelamim (which, like the Pesach, is eaten for only one night)?

(a) The Gemara rejects the previous answer too, on the grounds that it would be possible to take the trouble and find a Mosar ha'Pesach (of which there must have been many), and make the same stipulation. The Gemara concludes however that it is not possible to use one lamb for either a Pesach or a Shelamim because of Semichah. What is the problem with Semichah?

(b) Why can one not make Semichah anyway? So what if the Pesach does not need Semichah?

(c) What is the problem with this answer from a woman's Korban Shelamim?

(d) The Gemara tries to give two answers: 1. that whereas a Shelamim requires *four* Matnos Dam (one on each corner), a Pesach requires only *one*: 2. that whereas a Shelamim requires *Zerikah*, the Pesach requires *Shefichah*.
On what grounds does the Gemara dismiss both of these answers?

3) How does the Gemara finally resolve the problem? Why is it not possible to bring a lamb of Mosar ha'Pesach and to use it as either a Pesach or a Shelamim?


(a) If someone tells his children that he is Shechting the Korban Pesach for whichever of them reaches Yerushalayim first, what happens when the first one reaches Yerushalayim?

(b) Why can the reason for this not be because of 'Yesh Bereirah'? What then *is* the reason for it?

(c) What proof does the Beraisa bring for this from the story where the girls came first?

(a) One may join a group for the Pesach up to the time it is Shechted. Until when may one withdraw from it - according to the Tana Kama)?

(b) What does Rebbi Shimon say?

(c) Their Machlokes is based on the Pasuk in Bo "ve'Im Yim'at ha'Bayis *Miheyos mi'Seh*".
How does each one explain it?

(d) What do they (even Rebbi Shimon) learn from the Pasuk (ibid.) "be'Michsas Nefashos ... Tachosu"?

Answers to questions



(a) If one member of the group invites a friend to eat with him, what may the other members of the group say to him?

(b) According to which Tana does this Mishnah go (Rebbi Yehudah - on 86a, or Rebbi Shimon)?

(a) Is there a proof from the Tana of our Mishnah (who permits the members of the group to ask the member with the guest to take his portion and go) - that they may also do the same with a member who has an unusually large appetite?

(b) Rebbi Yehudah (in the Mishnah on 86a) lauds the members of the group who joined the waiter who inadvertently ate a k'Zayis by the oven, but does not obligate them to do so. Is there a proof from there that, just as the members of the group are permitted to retract from their original undertaking (to eat with the waiter) due to the inconvenience of moving, so too, can they retract if they are worried about receiving a smaller portion.

(c) How does the Gemara finally resolve the Sha'leh?

(d) The Beraisa concludes 've'Lo Od, Ela Afilu Chamishah she'Asu Siboles, Resha'in Lomar Lo Tul Chelkecha, ve'Tzei'.
What does this mean? What is the Chidush?

(a) Alternatively, the Sha'leh concerns splitting up the Pesach (not retracting because of someone's large appetite, which this Lashon takes for granted is permitted - but) because of a Din in Hilchos Se'udah).
What exactly is the Sha'leh?

(b) How does the Gemara resolve it?

(a) Rav Huna Brei de'Rav Yehoshua seems to have made a bad deal when he sat down to share a meal with Rav Papa. who ate four times as much as he did. What did Rav Papa argue when Rav Huna asked him from the Beraisa, which permits the members of the group to send the member with the hearty appetite away to eat on his own?

(b) What did Rav Papa do when Rav Huna asked him from the Beraisa of 'Siboles', which specifically speaks about the rest of the year?

(c) What is the significance of the statement 'Me'ah Papi, ve'Lo Chad Ravina'?

(a) Does the Chagigah need to be designated, like the Pesach?

(b) What is the status of the money which the owner receives from the designees for their portion of Pesach?

(c) What happens to an Olah or a Shelamim, already designated for one person, that is sold to another?

(d) Since the transaction is invalid, why does the money go to Nedavah?

(a) In the previous case, what does the Tana mean by 'Ma'os Kol Shehein Yiplu li'Nedavah'?

(b) Rebbi Oshaya establishes the Mishnah of 'Esnan Chal Al ha'Mukdashin' by someone who designates a prostitute on his Pesach - and according to Rebbi, who holds 'Pesach Mamon Ba'lim Hu', (which will be discussed shortly). Abaye would have explained the Mishnah according to Rebbi Yossi Hagelili.
What does he mean by that? What does Rebbi Yossi Hagelili say?

Answers to questions
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