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prepared by Rabbi Eliezer Chrysler
Kollel Iyun Hadaf, Jerusalem

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Pesachim 79


(a) We just established Rav (who remarks with regard to our Mishnah 'Nitma Basar' ... 'Im Zarak Hurtzah') like Rebbi Nasan. Alternatively, he establishes it like Rebbi Yehoshua.
What distinction does Rebbi Yehoshua make with regard to 'Nitma Basar ve'Cheilev Kayam' of other Kodshim and of someone who brings his Pesach?

(b) Which other Korban has the equivalent Din to the Pesach in this regard?

(c) What statement does Rebbi Yehoshua make that establishes Rav like him?

(d) Rebbi Yehoshua agrees however, that 'Im Nitme'u ha'Ba'lim be'Meis, Lo Yizrok, *ve'Im Zarak, Lo Hurtzah'*.
Why is that?

(a) Who is the author of our Mishnah, which permits the blood of Kodshim to be sprinkled even if no more one k'Zayis of Basar or of Chelev remains?

(b) Half a k'Zayis of Basar and half a k'Zayis of Cheilev do not generally combine in this regard.
Why not?

(c) By which Korban do they combine?

(d) What does the Beraisa mean when it says 'u've'Minchah, Af al Pi she'Kulah Kayemes, Lo Yizrok'? What might we have otherwise thought?

(a) What do we learn from the Pasuk in Acharei-Mos ...
  1. ... "ve'Hiktir *ha'Chelev* le'Rei'ach Nicho'ach la'Hashem"?
  2. ... "ve'Hiktir ha'Chelev *le'Rei'ach Nicho'ach* la'Hashem"?
(b) How do we know from the Beraisa that the lobe of the liver and the two kidneys have the same Din as the Chelev in this regard?

(c) Having written "le'Rei'ach Nicho'ach", why does the Torah need to also write "ha'Chelev"?

(a) When will the Pesach be brought be'Tuma'h even though the majority of the community are Tahor?

(b) What do the Tehorim do when the majority of the community are Tamei (or the community, when the Kohanim are Tamei)?

(c) When is the Pesach brought be'Tum'ah even if the entire community (including the Kohanim) are Tahor?

(a) In the previous case, how did the knives (the K'lei Shares) become Tamei, and why is that?

(b) What will the Din be if the knives became Tamei through a Sheretz?

(c) Why must Rav Chisda and Rav Yitzchak, the exponents of this opinion, hold 'Tum'ah Dechuyah be'Tzibur'?

(d) Rava holds that even if the knives became Tamei through a Sheretz, the Temei'in also bring the Korban Pesach, not because he holds 'Tum'ah Hutrah be'Tzibur', but because of the Pesukim in Tzav "ve'ha'Basar, Asher Yiga be'Chol Tamei, Lo Ye'achel, ba'Eish Yisaref. ve'ha'Basar, Kol Tahor Yochal Basar".
How does he learn it from there?

(a) If exactly half of Yisrael were Tamei, and half were Tahor, Rav holds 'Mechtzah Al Mechtzah ke'Rov'.
What does this mean in practical terms?

(b) Why do the Tehorim bring the Pesach independently, and why do the Temei'im not bring it on Pesach Sheini?

(c) Rav Kahana holds 'Mechtzah Al Mechtzah Einah ke'Rov'. The Tehorim bring the Pesach be'Taharah.
There are however, two opinions as to what the Temei'im do.
What are they?

Answers to questions



(a) How does Rav reconcile his opinion with our Mishnah, which states that if the *majority* of the community is Tamei, they bring the Pesach be'Tum'ah, but not it would seem, if only *half* are?

(b) How does the Gemara prove this answer from the Seifa, which states 'Nitma Miy'ut ha'Kahal, Tehorin Osin es ha'Rishon, u'Temei'in Osin es ha'Sheini'?

(c) This explanation leaves us with a Kahya on Rav Kahana. The second Lashon will answer that the Tana mentions 'Miy'ut Temei'im', because only then, do the Temei'im bring Pesach Sheini, but by Mechtzah al Mechtzah, they do not bring anything at all.
According to the first Lashon (which appears to give Mechtzah al Mechtzah the same Din as Miy'ut Temei'im), why does the Tana mention specifically 'Miy'ut Temei'im'?

(a) There is a Beraisa like Rav, and a Beraisa like each of the Leshanos of Rav Kahana.
Rav and the second Lashon of Rav Kahana establish the Beraisa 'Tehorin Osin es ha'Rishon, u'Temei'in es ha'Sheini', by 'Mechtzah Temei'in u'Mechtzah Tehorin, ve'Nashim Mashlimos la'Temei'in'.
How does that explain the Beraisa? Are the Nashim Chov or Reshus?

(b) The Beraisa that conforms with the second Lashon of Rav Kahana states 'Tehorin Osin es ha'Rishon, u'Temei'in Ein Osin Lo es ha'Rishon ve'Lo es ha'Sheini'. Rav establishes the Beraisa by 'Mechtzah Temei'in u'Mechtzah Tehorin, ve'Nashim Mashlimos la'Tehor'in'.
How does that explain the Beraisa? Are the Nashim on the Rishon and on the Sheini, Chov or Reshus?

(c) How does Rav Kahana in the first Lashon explain the Beraisa?

(d) And how will Rav Kahana explain the Beraisa which states 'Halalu Osin le'Atzman, ve'Halalu Osin le'Atzman'?

(a) The Tana Kama of this latter Beraisa holds that, even if there is one Tahor more than the Temei'im, they all bring the Pesach be'Tum'ah. What does Rebbi Elazar ben Masya say? How does he learn this from the Pasuk in Re'ei "Lo Suchal Lizbo'ach es ha'Pasach be'Achad She'arecha"?

(b) What does Rebbi Shimon say about one tribe that is Tamei, and what is his reason for that?

(c) Rebbi Yehudah goes even further than Rebbi Shimon.
What does he say, and what is *his* reason?

Answers to questions
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