REVIEW QUESTIONS ON GEMARA AND RASHI
prepared by Rabbi Eliezer Chrysler
Kollel Iyun Hadaf, Jerusalem
Previous dafPesachim 72
(a) The Reisha of our Mishnah ('ha'Pesach she'Shechato she'Lo Lishemo
be'Shabbos, Chayav Alav Chatas') speaks by 'Oker' (as opposed to To'eh).
What does this mean, and what do we learn from it?
(b) Why must the Seifa ('ve'Sha'r Kol ha'Zevachim ... Im Einan Re'uyin,
Chayav ... ') be speaking about 'To'eh'? What is To'eh?
(c) How many times did Rav Yitzchak bar Yosef hear the distinction between
the Reisha and the Seifa from Rebbi Avahu, before he was satisfied that he
would never forget it?
(a) Since the Reisha speaks by 'Oker' and the Seifa by 'To'eh', how can
Rebbi Eliezer learn a Kal va'Chomer to disqualify Sha'r Zevachim in the
Seifa from Pesach in the Reisha?
(b) Why did Rebbi Yehoshua not then ask Rebbi Eliezer from *this*
distinction rather from the fact that in the Reisha, they changed to
something which is forbidden etc.?
(a) Rebbi Yehoshua explains that if the Kohanim Shechted another Korban as
the Korban Tzibur by mistake, they are Chayav, because there is only one
Korban that needs to be brought.
How do we reconcile this with the
Mishnah in Kerisus, where Rebbi Yehoshua exempts a Mohel who had two babies
to circumcise, one who was due before Shabbos, and one, on Shabbos, if he
circumcised the Erev Shabbos baby, even though it is the only one that still
needs to be circumcised?
(b) What will Rebbi Yehoshua hold in the Seifa, where he circumcised the
*Sunday* baby on Shabbos? Why the difference?
(c) What does Rebbi Eliezer hold? What is the basis of their Machlokes?
(a) According to Rebbi Meir, Rebbi Yehoshua renders Chayav a Mohel who had a
Friday baby and a Shabbos one to circumcise, and he went and circumcised the
Friday baby on Shabbos, but not if he circumcised a Sunday baby instead of
the Shabbos one.
Answers to questions
Why does this statement appear to be senseless?
(b) How do we establish the first case, to answer the question?
(c) In light of that, why does Rebbi Meir maintain that, according to Rebbi
Yehoshua, someone who mistakenly Shechts another Korban as a Korban Tzibur
on Shabbos is Patur? What is the criterion for being Patur from a Chatas,
according to Rebbi Meir?
(a) The author of our Mishnah, who differentiates between other Korbanos
that are fit for a Pesach and those that are not, is Rebbi Shimon.
does Rebbi Meir hold in this regard?
(b) What will Rebbi Meir hold (and why) if someone Shechted as a Korban
- ... a *calf* of a Shelamim?
- ... a lamb of *Chulin*?
- ... a lamb that was blemished?
(a) Resh Lakish rules that someone who got confused and ate a spit
containing Nosar, thinking that it was roasted meat of a Korban Pesach, is
Like which Tana does he hold, Rebbi Meir or Rebbi Shimon (in Rebbi
(b) Rebbi Yochanan differentiates between a man who mistakenly had relations
with his wife when she was a Nidah, and one who did the same thing with his
Yevamah. If Rebbi Yochanan renders him Chayav in the case of his wife, then
one would certainly expect him to agree with Resh Lakish in a., where he did
not perform any Mitzvah at all. Why might this not be the case? Why might
he nevertheless disagree with Resh Lakish, to render him Patur, in spite of
the fact that he did *not* perform a Mitzvah?
(a) Is there a Mitzvah to be Mesamei'ach one's wife ...
(b) When is it not a Mitzvah?
- ... even when she is pregnant?
- ... even it is not the time of her Onah?
(c) Considering that being Bo'el a Yevamah is no more of a Mitzvah than
being Bo'el one's wife, why does Rebbi Yochanan exempt the former from
bringing a Chatas, and obligate the latter?
(a) We try to connect Rebbi Yochanan (who exempts from a Chatas whenever it
is not feasible to ask) with Rebbi Yossi, who exempts someone who carried a
Lulav into the street on the first day of Succos that fell on Shabbos.
in fact, is that case different?
(b) Why can we not prove that Rebbi Yochanan follows the opinion of Rebbi
Yehoshua who exempts in our Mishnah someone who Shechts another Korban as a
(c) Nor can we prove that he follows the opinion of Rebbi Yehoshua in
Terumos, who exempts a Kohen who was eating Terumah when he discovered that
he was a Ben Gerushah or a Ben Chalutzah from paying the principle plus the
extra fifth, because, according to Rav Bibi Bar Abaye, he is speaking about
Terumah on Erev Pesach, where, like in the previous case, he is Patur
because he is Bahul (rushed). Alternatively, he may be Patur because Terumah
is like Avodah. What does this mean? What is special about Avodah in this
regard, and how do we learn it from the Pasuk in ve'Zos ha'Berachah "Barech
Hashem Cheilo, u'Fo'al Yadav Tirtzeh"?
(a) How did Rebbi Tarfon, who was a Kohen, justify his absence from the Beis
ha'Medrash the previous day?
Answers to questions
(b) On what grounds did he refer to Terumah as an Avodah?
(c) Why was Raban Gamliel initially surprised when Rebbi Tarfon said that he
had been doing the Avodah?