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prepared by Rabbi Eliezer Chrysler
Kollel Iyun Hadaf, Jerusalem

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Pesachim 72


(a) The Reisha of our Mishnah ('ha'Pesach she'Shechato she'Lo Lishemo be'Shabbos, Chayav Alav Chatas') speaks by 'Oker' (as opposed to To'eh). What does this mean, and what do we learn from it?

(b) Why must the Seifa ('ve'Sha'r Kol ha'Zevachim ... Im Einan Re'uyin, Chayav ... ') be speaking about 'To'eh'? What is To'eh?

(c) How many times did Rav Yitzchak bar Yosef hear the distinction between the Reisha and the Seifa from Rebbi Avahu, before he was satisfied that he would never forget it?

(a) Since the Reisha speaks by 'Oker' and the Seifa by 'To'eh', how can Rebbi Eliezer learn a Kal va'Chomer to disqualify Sha'r Zevachim in the Seifa from Pesach in the Reisha?

(b) Why did Rebbi Yehoshua not then ask Rebbi Eliezer from *this* distinction rather from the fact that in the Reisha, they changed to something which is forbidden etc.?

(a) Rebbi Yehoshua explains that if the Kohanim Shechted another Korban as the Korban Tzibur by mistake, they are Chayav, because there is only one Korban that needs to be brought.
How do we reconcile this with the Mishnah in Kerisus, where Rebbi Yehoshua exempts a Mohel who had two babies to circumcise, one who was due before Shabbos, and one, on Shabbos, if he circumcised the Erev Shabbos baby, even though it is the only one that still needs to be circumcised?

(b) What will Rebbi Yehoshua hold in the Seifa, where he circumcised the *Sunday* baby on Shabbos? Why the difference?

(c) What does Rebbi Eliezer hold? What is the basis of their Machlokes?

(a) According to Rebbi Meir, Rebbi Yehoshua renders Chayav a Mohel who had a Friday baby and a Shabbos one to circumcise, and he went and circumcised the Friday baby on Shabbos, but not if he circumcised a Sunday baby instead of the Shabbos one.
Why does this statement appear to be senseless?

(b) How do we establish the first case, to answer the question?

(c) In light of that, why does Rebbi Meir maintain that, according to Rebbi Yehoshua, someone who mistakenly Shechts another Korban as a Korban Tzibur on Shabbos is Patur? What is the criterion for being Patur from a Chatas, according to Rebbi Meir?

Answers to questions



(a) The author of our Mishnah, who differentiates between other Korbanos that are fit for a Pesach and those that are not, is Rebbi Shimon.
What does Rebbi Meir hold in this regard?

(b) What will Rebbi Meir hold (and why) if someone Shechted as a Korban Pesach ...

  1. ... a *calf* of a Shelamim?
  2. ... a lamb of *Chulin*?
  3. ... a lamb that was blemished?
(a) Resh Lakish rules that someone who got confused and ate a spit containing Nosar, thinking that it was roasted meat of a Korban Pesach, is Chayav.
Like which Tana does he hold, Rebbi Meir or Rebbi Shimon (in Rebbi Yehoshua)?

(b) Rebbi Yochanan differentiates between a man who mistakenly had relations with his wife when she was a Nidah, and one who did the same thing with his Yevamah. If Rebbi Yochanan renders him Chayav in the case of his wife, then one would certainly expect him to agree with Resh Lakish in a., where he did not perform any Mitzvah at all. Why might this not be the case? Why might he nevertheless disagree with Resh Lakish, to render him Patur, in spite of the fact that he did *not* perform a Mitzvah?

(a) Is there a Mitzvah to be Mesamei'ach one's wife ...
  1. ... even when she is pregnant?
  2. ... even it is not the time of her Onah?
(b) When is it not a Mitzvah?

(c) Considering that being Bo'el a Yevamah is no more of a Mitzvah than being Bo'el one's wife, why does Rebbi Yochanan exempt the former from bringing a Chatas, and obligate the latter?

(a) We try to connect Rebbi Yochanan (who exempts from a Chatas whenever it is not feasible to ask) with Rebbi Yossi, who exempts someone who carried a Lulav into the street on the first day of Succos that fell on Shabbos.
Why in fact, is that case different?

(b) Why can we not prove that Rebbi Yochanan follows the opinion of Rebbi Yehoshua who exempts in our Mishnah someone who Shechts another Korban as a Korban Pesach?

(c) Nor can we prove that he follows the opinion of Rebbi Yehoshua in Terumos, who exempts a Kohen who was eating Terumah when he discovered that he was a Ben Gerushah or a Ben Chalutzah from paying the principle plus the extra fifth, because, according to Rav Bibi Bar Abaye, he is speaking about Terumah on Erev Pesach, where, like in the previous case, he is Patur because he is Bahul (rushed). Alternatively, he may be Patur because Terumah is like Avodah. What does this mean? What is special about Avodah in this regard, and how do we learn it from the Pasuk in ve'Zos ha'Berachah "Barech Hashem Cheilo, u'Fo'al Yadav Tirtzeh"?

(a) How did Rebbi Tarfon, who was a Kohen, justify his absence from the Beis ha'Medrash the previous day?

(b) On what grounds did he refer to Terumah as an Avodah?

(c) Why was Raban Gamliel initially surprised when Rebbi Tarfon said that he had been doing the Avodah?

Answers to questions
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