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prepared by Rabbi Eliezer Chrysler
Kollel Iyun Hadaf, Jerusalem

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Pesachim 70


(a) The author of our Mishnah, which gives the time period for eating the Korban Pesach as two days, is not Ben Teima.
Why not? What does Ben Teima say?

(b) How does Ben Teima learn this from the Pasuk in Ki Sisa "ve'Lo Yalin la'Boker Zevach Chag ha'Pasach"?

(c) Does this mean that, according to him, no Chagigah is ever eaten for two days?

(d) According to our Mishnah, one may use the Chagigah of the fourteenth as tomorrow's Shalmei Simchah, due a special Derashah (quoted in Chagigah). Why may one not use it for tomorrow's Chagigah?

(a) How does the Gemara prove that, according to Ben Teima, the Torah compares the Chagigah of the fourteenth to the Pesach - even as regards eating it roasted?

(b) In which other three ways is the Chagigah compared to the Pesach, according to him?

(c) It may nevertheless be permitted to break its bones (e.g. to eat the marrow), even though one may not do so by the Korban Pesach.
How might we learn this from the Pasuk in Bo "ve'Etzem Lo Sishberu *Bo*"?

(d) What is the alternative Derashah from "Bo"?

(a) One was permitted to Shecht immediately with a knife (a Sakin) that one found on the fourteenth of Nisan in Yerushalayim. If one found the knife on the thirteenth, one was first obligated to Tovel it.
Why the difference?

(b) But someone who found a Kupitz (a chopping-knife that was normally used to chop bones), was obligated to Tovel it first, even if he found it on the *fourteenth*.
What makes the Gemara establish this Beraisa like Ben Teima, and what does the Gemara attempt to prove from here?

(a) The Gemara then tries to establish the Beraisa even like the Rabbanan of Ben Teima, and the reason the owner did not Tovel the Kupitz is because Erev Pesach that year fell on Shabbos (in which case the Chagigah is not brought).
What is wrong with this explanation?

(b) Why may one Shecht with the Kupitz immediately, or on the following day (without having to Tovel it), if one found it on the fourteenth that fell on Shabbos?

(c) Under which circumstances is the Kupitz permitted immediately, even if it is found on the fourteenth which is a weekday?

Answers to questions



(a) We have already explained why we cannot establish the Beraisa by Erev Pesach that fell on Shabbos.
Why can we not establish it by a small group, in which case, the Chagigah is not brought?

(b) Ultimately, we establish the Beraisa by a Pesach ha'Ba be'Tum'ah (which does not require a Chagigah either).
How did the owner know already on the thirteenth that it might be a Pesach ha'Ba be'Tum'ah?

(c) Why can we not explain that the King had already died on the thirteenth?

(d) Seeing as the King was critically ill on the thirteenth, why do we assume that the owner Toveled the knife but not the chopping-knife?

(a) Why did Yehudah ben Dursai detach himself from the Chachamim to go and live in the south, far from Yerushalayim?

(b) How did he learn that from the Pasuk in Re'ei "ve'Zavachta Pesach la'Hashem Elokecha Tzon u'Vakar"?

(c) How do the Chachamim Darshen that Pasuk?

(a) What do we learn from the Pasuk in Emor (written in connection with Succos) "ve'Chagosem Oso Chag la'Hashem *Shiv'as Yamim* ba'Shanah"?

(b) Ravin pointed out that, in that case, the Chagigah is sometimes brought for *six* days and not *seven*.
When is that?

(c) Why did Abaye reject Ravin's Kashya?

(d) Why did he refer to him as 'Avin Tichla'?

8) Ula quoting Rebbi Elazar, states that one may not use Shelamim that were Shechted on Erev Succos, as Shalmei Simchah or as Chagigas Chamishah-Asar.
Why not?

Answers to questions
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