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prepared by Rabbi Eliezer Chrysler
Kollel Iyun Hadaf, Jerusalem

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Pesachim 60

1) Why must the Sha'aleh (whether the dual Machshavah took place in *one* Avodah or in *two*) be confined to a case of 'Lishemo ve'she'Lo li'Shemo', and not to the reverse case?


(a) What is the problem with the Reisha of our Mishnah 'ha'Pesach she'Shechato she'Lo Lishemo, ve'Kibel Damo, ve'Halach, ve'Zarak Lishemo ve'she'Lo Lishemo ... Pasul', if we leave it as it is?

(b) And do how do we resolve the problem?

(c) How do we now initially learn the Seifa 'I Nami Lishemo ve'she'Lo Lishemo', and how do we now resolve our original Sha'aleh?

(d) The Gemara rejects this proof on the grounds that both the Reisha and the Seifa can speak by two Avodos and go like Rebbi Meir.
How is this possible? What do we learn from there?

(a) The Gemara then attempts to prove that the Mishnah must be speaking by one Avodah, from the next section of Mishnah 'O she'Lo Lishemo ve'Lishemo'? What is the proof from there?

(b) If both cases are speaking by one Avodah, what will be the Chidush by she'Lo Lishemo ve'Lishemo?

(c) This too, the Gemara rejects. Perhaps the entire Mishnah is speaking by two Avodos.
Then why is it necessary to mention the case of 'she'Lo Lishemo ve'Lishemo' at all?

(a) The Mishnah later (on 61a) says 'Shechato she'Lo le'Ochlav, ve'she'Lo li'Menuyav, la'Arelim ve'li'Temei'im, Pasul'.
What is the case of 'she'Lo le'Ochlav', and what is the source for the Pesul?

(b) What does she'Lo li'Menuyav mean?

(c) The Gemara initially thinks that since *that Mishnah* is speaking by one Avodah, so must *ours*.
How does the Gemara refute this suggestion?

(a) The second Mishnah continues, 'l'Ochlav veshe'Lo l'Ochlav Kasher'. The Gemara, following exactly the same pattern as in the previous questions, proves that it must be refering to the case of one Avodah, then suggests that our Mishnah must be refering to the case of one Avodah, too. It concludes as it concluded there.
If the Mishnah there would be refering to the case of two Avodos (i.e. Shechitah and Zerikah), why would the Pesach be Kasher?

(b) Why is this explanation unacceptable?

Answers to questions



(a) Is a Korban Pesach Kasher if it is Shechted before Pesach ...
  1. ... as a Shelamim?
  2. ... as a Pesach?
(b) What Sha'leh does the Gemara ask regarding a Pesach that was Shechted before Pesach - 'Lishemo ve'she'Lo Lishemo'? What does 'she'Lo Lishemo' mean?

(c) How did Rav Dimi attempt to resolve the Sha'aleh by means of a Binyan Av from 'Lishemo ha'Machshiro bi'Zemano'?

(d) How did Rebbi Yirmiyah refute Rav Dimi's Binyan Av by differentiating between the she'Lo Lishemo (which preceded the Lishemah - by bi'Zemano) and the Lishmah (which preceded the she'Lo Lishemah - by she'Lo bi'Zemano)?

(a) How does Rava prove that Lishmo ve'she'Lo Lishemo is Kasher from the fact that 'Setamo Lishemo Ka'i' ... ?

(b) Rav Ada Bar Ahavah tries to refute Rava's proof because 'Sha'ni Heicha de'Amar me'Heicha de'Lo Amar'.
How does he prove his point from 'le'Ochlav ve'she'Lo le'Ochlav'?

(c) And how does Rava differentiate between the S'tam of Lishemo and that of le'Ochlav?

(a) What Sha'leh does the Gemara ask with regard to Shinuy Ba'lim?

(b) How did Rav Papa attempt to prove that it is indeed Kasher?

(c) On what grounds does Rava refute Rav Papa's proof?

(a) Shinuy Kodesh has four Chumros over Shinuy Ba'lim: 1. Pesulo be'Gufo; 2. Yeshno be'Arba Avodos; 3. Yeshno be'le'Achar Misah.
What does each of these mean?

(b) What is the fourth Chumrah?

Answers to questions
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