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prepared by Rabbi Eliezer Chrysler
Kollel Iyun Hadaf, Jerusalem

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Pesachim 38


(a) In Rav Asi's opinion, what do the Mitzvah of Chalah, Matzos on Pesach and an Esrog on Succos all have in common, according to Rebbi Meir?

(b) What is Rebbi Meir's source for ...

  1. ... Chalah?
  2. ... an Esrog?
  3. ... Matzah?
(c) What do the Rabbanan hold?

(d) The Beraisa cites the Machlokes between Rebbi Meir and the Rabbanan with regard to Chalah.
Is this a proof for Rav Asi, that they also argue by Esrog? If not, what might we otherwise learn from the word "Lachem"?

(a) We learnt above, (on 36a) that according to Rebbi Akiva, one is Yotze with *Matzah* of Ma'aser-Sheni.
Why might one nevertheless not be Yotze with *Chalah* of Ma'aser-Sheni (according to the Rabbanan of Rebbi Meir - see previous question)?

(b) Why, on the other hand, is one possibly Yotze?

(a) According to the second Lashon, we may assume that, in the previous case, one will be Yotze, because of the 'Ho'il', and the Sha'aleh concerns the Chalah that one separated from grain that he purchased with Ma'aser- Sheni money.
What are the two sides of the Sha'aleh there?

(b) Why is this Sha'aleh not valid according to the Rabbanan of Rebbi Yehudah? What do they hold?

(c) Why does Rebbi Yehudah rule that produce bought with Ma'aser-Sheni money which became Tamei, must be burnt? Why can it not be redeemed?

(a) Why is Chalas-Ma'aser Tehorah not also a case of *two* Ho'ils ('Ho'il ve'Lo Kara Aleha Shem' & 'Ho'il ve'I Mitamei, Parik Lah')?

(b) What is the outcome of the Sha'aleh? Is a Kohen Yotze the Mitzvah of Matzah with the Chalah of produce purchased with Ma'aser-Sheni money, or not, and why is that?

Answers to questions



(a) 'Chalos Todah u'Rekikei Nazir, As'an le'Atzmo, Ein Yotz'in Bahen'. How does Rabah learn this from the Pasuk in Bo "u'Shemartem es ha'Matzos"?

(b) Rav Yosef learns it from "Shiv'as Yamim Matzos Tochelu" (ibid).
How does he learn it from there?

(c) What is the practical difference between the two explanations?

(a) Is an Onan permitted to eat Kodshim?

(b) In that case, why do we need a new Pasuk to teach us that one cannot be Yotze with Chalos Todah u'Rekikei Nazir? Why do we not know that already from the Pasuk "Lechem Oni" - 'Mi she'Ne'echal ba'Aninus, Yatza Zeh she'Eino Ne'echal ba'Aninus Ela be'Simchah"?

(c) In that case, why is it not Pasul because of the oil that it contained, since, according to Rebbi Akiva, we Darshen 'Lechem *Ani*' (to preclude Matzah Ashirah)?

(a) Considering that the Chalos Todah and Rekikei Nazir (like all Kodshim Kalim) had to be eaten in Yerushalayim, why are they not disqualified from the Pasuk in Bo "be'*Chol Moshvoseichem* Tochlu Matzos" (see Sugya, 36b)?

(b) Which category of Korbanos could be brought on the Bamah Gedolah in Nov and Giv'on ...

  1. ... according to Rebbi Shimon (in the first Perek of Megilah?
  2. ... according to the Tana in the last Perek of Zevachim?
8) Why should there be a difference between Chalos Todah and Rekikei Nazir which one made for oneself and those which he made to sell in the market?

Answers to questions
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