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prepared by Rabbi Eliezer Chrysler
Kollel Iyun Hadaf, Jerusalem

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Pesachim 33


(a) We just established that the Chumra of Misah by Me'ilah over other Mitzvos, is by Kodesh which is less than the value of a Perutah. The author of the Beraisa which holds that Meizid is Chayav by Me'ilah is Rebbi.
What is Rebbi's source for this, and why will it clash with the current Halachah under discussion?

(b) Rav Papa answers that Rebbi perhaps holds like Aba Shaul.
How will that solve the problem?

(c) How does this prove that Rav Papa retracted from his previous stance (that Aba Shaul requires two things)?

(a) Mar B'rei de'Rabana answers the initial Kashya (to establish a case where Me'ilah is Chayav Misah and other Mitzvos are not), by 'Eino Miskaven'.
What is the case by other Mitzvos, and what makes the perpetrator a Shogeg to bring a Chatas?

(b) What is the case by Me'ilah, and why is Me'ilah more stringent in this case?

(c) According to Rav Nachman bar Yitzchak, one will be Chayav in the previous case, even by other Mitzvos, too.
Why is that?

(d) In which case then, is Me'ilah more stringent than other Mitzvos, according to him?

(a) What do we learn from the Pasuk in Re'ei "Reishis Degancha ... *Titen Lo*"?

(b) How do we reconcile this with the Beraisa 'Ein Tormin min ha'Temei'ah Al ha'Tehorah, ve'Im Taram be'Shogeg, *Terumaso Terumah*'?

(c) What if the wheat became Chametz between the time it was picked and the 'Digun' (the flattening of the heap - from which time on, it is Chayav to be Ma'asered)? Is the Terumah effective?

(d) What does 'be'Shogeg' in the above Beraisa mean?

4) 'Bi'Gezeiras Irin Pisgama, u've'Ma'amar Kadishin She'ilta'. Daniel was referring to angels, when he said this. Was Rav Nachman bar Yitzchak referring to angels, too?


(a) What Rav Nachman bar Yitzchak learns from "Titen Lo", Rav Huna Brei de'Rav Yehoshua learns from "*Reishis* Degancha" - 'she'Shireha Nikarin le'Yisrael'.
What does this mean?

(b) What is the Halachic difference between the two Derashos?

Answers to questions



(a) Rav Acha bar Rav Ivya quoting Rebbi Yochanan, says that if grapes become Tamei, one may press them less than a k'Beitzah at a time, and the wine will be Kasher for the Nesachim.
Why is that?

(b) If there was exactly a k'Beitzah of grapes, would they also be Kasher for the Nesachim or not?

(c) Then why did Rebbi Yochanan say specifically *less* than a k'Beitzah?

(a) From where do we know that less than a k'Beitzah of food cannot transmit Tum'ah?

(b) What is the minimum Shiur for a liquid to transmit Tum'ah?

(c) Rav Chisda disagrees with Rebbi Yochanan (about the wine contained inside the grapes).
What does *he* say, and what is the basis of their Machlokes?

(d) How will Rav Chisda explain the Mishnah in Taharos 'Tamei Mes she'Sachat Zeisim va'Anavim, k'Beitzah Mechavenes, Tehorim'?
Why is that?

(a) How does Rav Chisda prove from the Beraisa (quoted above on 32a), which writes that berries or grapes that became Tamei, have no Heter Achilah - that 'Mashkei Mivli Beli'i'?

(b) How does Rava refute Rav Chisda's proof (to establish the Beraisa even according to Rebbi Yochanan, who holds 'Mashkei 'Mivli Beli'i')?

(c) How does Rava reconcile this with the Beraisa which permits the use of Terumah bread and oil that became Tamei, as fuel?

(d) Rav Huna forbids using wheat kernels of Tamei Terumah as fuel; Rebbi Yochanan permits it.
How do we establish their Machlokes, and on what is it based?

Answers to questions
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