REVIEW QUESTIONS ON GEMARA AND RASHI
prepared by Rabbi Eliezer Chrysler
Kollel Iyun Hadaf, Jerusalem
Previous dafPesachim 23
PESACHIM 23 - has been sponsored by a donation from Mr. Morris Smith of Yerushalayim
(a) On what grounds does the Mishnah in Eruvin permit using wine on behalf
of a Nazir for an Eruv Techumin, and Terumah on behalf of a Yisrael - in
spite of the fact that they are forbidden to drink it?
(b) Considering that the Torah writes in Emor "ve'Chol Zar Lo *Yochal*
Kodesh"(incorporarting Terumah), how does Rebbi Avahu explain the fact that
a Yisrael is permitted to derive benefit from Terumah?
(c) And how does Rebbi Avahu explain the fact that a Nazir is permitted to
derive benefit from wine, in spite of the Pasuk in Naso "me'Chartzanim ve'Ad
Zag Lo Yochel"?
(d) Rav Ashi tries to learn it from "Gadel Pera Se'ar Rosho".
How does he
learn it from there, and why does the Gemara refute his explanation?
(a) 'Kotzer la'Shachas, u'Ma'achil li'Beheimah'.
What do these two
(b) How does Rebbi Avahu explain the fact that Chadash is Mutar be'Hana'ah,
in light of the Pasuk in Emor "ve'Lechem ve'Kali ve'Charmel Lo *Sochlu* ad
Etzem ha'Yom ha'Zeh"?
(c) How does Chizkiyah explain the words "Terumaschem" and "Ketzirchem" (by
Terumah and Chadash respectively)?
(a) Hunters who caught Sheratzim may sell them to gentiles (in spite of the
Pasuk "Lo Ye'achel"), because the Torah also writes "Lachem".
Why does the Gemara not see fit to ask on Rebbi Avahu (like it asks on
Chizkiyah) why the Torah ostensibly prohibits deriving benefit from certain
foods by writing "Lo Sochlu" etc., and then has to write "Lachem" etc. to
case, why are they not permitted to trap them initially, in order to sell
them to gentiles?
(b) What is Chizkiyah's source for his contention that "*Lo Ye'achel*"
incorporates a prohibition to derive benefit, but not "*Lo Yochal*" etc.?
Rebbi Yossi Hagelili permits one to derive benefit from Chametz from one of
the three times "Lecha" written in the Torah. The Rabbanan need one "Lecha"
to forbid the Chametz of a gentile who *is* under your jurisdiction, and one
to forbid a gentile who is *not* (refer to Sugya, 5b).
Why do they need
the third "Lecha"?
(a) What does Rebbi Yossi Hagelili learn from the Pasuk in Tzav (with regard
to the Chelev of Neveilah) "Ye'aseh le'Chol Melachah"?
Answers to questions
(b) Why would we otherwise have thought that it should be Asur be'Hana'ah,
even though it is permitted to Hekdesh (i.e. Bedek ha'bayis)?
(c) What does Rebbi Akiva learn from "Ye'aseh le'Chol Melachah"?
(d) The Gemara suggests that their Machlokes is based on the Machlokes
between Rebbi Avahu and Chizkiyah.
How would we then explain their
(a) The Gemara concludes that, in fact, both Rebbi Yossi Hagelili and Rebbi
Akiva agree that "Lo Sochlu" etc. incorporates the prohibition to derive
benefit (like Rebbi Avahu).
Then why does Rebbi Akiva decline to learn the
Heter Hana'ah from "le'Chol Melachah", like Rebbi Yossi Hagelili does?
(b) What does Rebbi Yossi Hagelili hold in this regard?
(c) Rebbi Yossi Hagelili has a Pasuk to permit deriving benefit from Chelev.
He has no Pasuk though, to permit Gid ha'Nasheh. It may well be forbidden,
according to him. On the other hand, it may be permitted.
What would be
his source for permitting it?
(d) Rebbi Shimon who forbids deriving benefit from Gid ha'Nasheh, rejects
the Kal va'Chomer, on the grounds that Gid ha'Nasheh has a Chumra over
What is that Chumra, and why might Rebbi Yossi Hagelili refute
(a) In the above Sugya, Rebbi Avuhu and Chizkiyah disagree on the basic
principle (whether "Lo Sochal" etc., incorporates an Isur Hana'ah or not.
The practical ramifications of their Machlokes boil down to only one case.
What is it?
(b) What is the basis of their Machlokes?
(a) Rebbi Yehoshua ben Levi was looking for the source of the statement that
all Isurin in the Torah are Asur be'Hana'ah, just like they are Asur to eat.
What does 'all Isurin in the Torah' incorporate?
(b) Why can he not learn it from "Lo Ye'achel"?
(c) Why can he not learn it from Neveilah (like Rebbi Meir on Daf 21b)?
(d) So why does he not learn it from "la'Kelev Tashlichun *Oso*" (of
(a) Rebbi Yehoshua ben Levi eventually learns Chametz and Shor ha'Niskal
from the Pasuk in Tzav "Kol Chatas Asher Yuva mi'Damah ... ba'Esh Tisaref".
What does Rebbi Yehoshua ben Levi learn from "ba'Kodesh ba'Esh Tisaref"?
What is the simple interpretation of the Pasuk?
(b) We actually know this Halachah already from "ve'Hineh Soraf" - in
In which context is that written?
(c) So what does Rebbi Yehoshua ben Levi do with the Pasuk "ba'Esh Tisaref"?
(d) But surely "ba'Esh Tisaref" is referring to the prohibition of eating
Kodshim, and not to that of deriving benefit from other Isurim?
Answers to questions