REVIEW QUESTIONS ON GEMARA AND RASHI
prepared by Rabbi Eliezer Chrysler
Kollel Iyun Hadaf, Jerusalem
Previous dafPesachim 15
(a) Resh Lakish rejects the Gemara's previous suggestion. He prefers to
establish Rebbi Chanina S'gan ha'Kohanim by flesh which became Tamei
through an Av ha'Tum'ah d'Oraysa which is being burnt together with meat
which became Tamei through a V'lad d'Oraysa.
According to Resh Lakish,
to whom does 'mi'Divreihem' refer?
(b) Considering that this Mishnah appears in the first chapter of
Pesachim, what is the disadvantage of learning this way?
(a) How does Rebbi Eliezer explain the Pasuk in Korach "es Mishmeres
Terumosai", and what does he learn from it?
(b) What does Rebbi Yehoshua say about this? How does he interpret the
Pasuk "es Mishmeres Terumosai"?
(c) Seeing as Rebbi Yehoshua is actually permitting one to increase Tum'ah
in a case when the Terumah has to be burnt anyway, why can this not be the
case of Rebbi Yehoshua to which Rebbi Meir in our Mishnah is referring?
(a) A barrel of Terumah wine broke in the upper wine-press (where the
grapes are placed), and the wine is now starting to spill into Tamei
Chulin wine lying in the lower wine-press.
What do Rebbi Eliezer and
Rebbi Yehoshua agree that one should do, if possible - even though that
will cause him a loss?
(b) If only Tamei vessels are available, Rebbi Eliezer rules that one must
simply allow the wine to spill into the lower wine-press, and allow the
wine there to become Meduma.
What can one do with Meduma wine which is
(c) What does Rebbi Yehoshua say in this case?
(d) From which of the above statements does Rebbi Meir derive his opinion
in our Mishnah (that it is permitted to burn Terumah Tehorah together with
Terumah Temei'ah on Pesach)?
(a) Rebbi Yossi queried Rebbi Meir as follows: According to Rebbi Chanina
S'gan ha'Kohanim, both the Shelishi and the Rishon are Tamei so how can
Rebbi Meir derive from there a concession to burn Tahor Chametz together
with Tamei Chametz (as we asked above at the end of 14b)?
Answers to questions
Is it not
clear from here that Rebbi Meir learnt his Din from Rebbi Chanina S'gan
ha'Kohanim, and not from Rebbi Yehoshua (So how can Resh Lakish cite Rebbi
Yehoshua as Rebbi Meir's source)?
(b) On what grounds does Rebbi Yossi disagree with Rebbi Meir, even after
he discovers that Rebbi Meir bases his opinion on that of Rebbi Yehoshua?
Why should Rebbi Yehoshua permit saving the wine in Tamei vessels, but not
burning the Tahor Chametz Terumeh together with the Tamei?
(c) And what will Rebbi Yossi say to the fact that, in our Mishnah too,
it will now mean using two lots of wood, one to burn the Terumah Tehorah,
and the other, to burn the Terumah Temei'ah?
Does that not constitute a
(a) Rav Asi quoting Rebbi Yochanan, establishes the Machlokes between
Rebbi Meir and Rebbi Yossi specifically in the *sixth* hour; in the
*seventh*, even Rebbi Yossi will agree that one may burn Terumah Tehorah
together with Terumah Temei'ah.
Is there a proof for Rebbi Yochanan (that Rebbi Yossi agrees in the
seventh hour) from the Beraisa, where Rebbi Yossi quotes Beis Hillel, who
permits burning Pigul, Nosar and Tum'ah together, because they all carry
an Isur d'Oraysa - even though they are not Tamei?
Why is that?
(b) Assuming that, in the opinion of Rebbi Yochanan, Rebbi Meir learns his
Din from Rebbi Chanina S'gan ha'Kohanim (and this is the Gemara's
conclusion), how will we have to establish Rebbi Chanina S'gan ha'Kohanim?
(c) According to this explanation, why did Rebbi Meir not learn his Din
from Rebbi Yehoshua?
(d) Even according to Rebbi Yochanan, the Gemara did contend with the
possibility that Rebbi Meir learnt his Din from Rebbi Yehoshua.
would be the difference whether he learns it from Rebbi Chanina S'gan
ha'Kohanim or from Rebbi Yehoshua?
(a) Is bread that has gone moldy still subject to Tum'as Ochlin?
(b) Who must be the author of the Beraisa which permits burning it
together with Tamei bread on Pesach, and why?
(c) Why did the Gemara presume this to be a proof for Rebbi Yochanan (that
Rebbi Yossi agrees in the seventh hour)?
(d) Why is this in fact, not a proof?
(a) Since, according to Rebbi Yochanan, Rebbi Meir's source is Rebbi
Chanina S'gan ha'Kohanim, why does the Tana in our Mishnah continue
'u'Modeh Rebbi Eliezer ve'Rebbi Yehoshua' ... ?
(b) But how can we say that Rebbi Yehoshua agrees by Teluyah and Temei'ah,
seeing as, even there, he only permits Gerama, but not actually being
Metamei the Teluyah with one's hands?
(a) Since Rebbi Meir derives his Din from Rebbi Chanina S'gan ha'Kohanim,
what is now the problem with Rebbi Yossi's statement 'Einah Hi ha'Midah'?
(b) Rebbi Yirmiyah resolves this problem by saying 'Hacha be'Besar
she'Nitme'u be'Mashkin Askinan; ve'Azda Rebbi Meir le'Ta'amei, ve'Rebbi
What does he mean by that?
(c) If we take Rebbi Yirmiyah literally, one will be burning a Sheni
le'Tum'ah together with a Rishon, in which case, we will not be adding
Tum'ah at all.
How then, will we have to interpret his words?
(a) Since food renders other food Tamei only mi'de'Rabbanan, burning the
two pieces of flesh together will only render the Shelishi, a Sheini
de'Rabbanan (which is how Ravina, in the previous explanation, learnt).
What is the problem with that, according to Rebbi Yirmiyah?
Answers to questions
(b) How will Rebbi Yirmiyah deal with this? How will he have to hold with
regard to Kodshim being Metamei Kodshim?
(c) Rebbi Meir interprets Rebbi Chanina S'gan ha'Kohanim to mean that one
may turn a Sheini de'Rabbanan into a Sheini d'Oraysa, which is why he
derives from there the concession of making a Sheni de'Rabbanan, a Sheni
How does Rebbi Yossi interpret Rebbi Chanina S'gan ha'Kohanim?