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prepared by Rabbi Eliezer Chrysler
Kollel Iyun Hadaf, Jerusalem

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Pesachim 15


(a) Resh Lakish rejects the Gemara's previous suggestion. He prefers to establish Rebbi Chanina S'gan ha'Kohanim by flesh which became Tamei through an Av ha'Tum'ah d'Oraysa which is being burnt together with meat which became Tamei through a V'lad d'Oraysa.
According to Resh Lakish, to whom does 'mi'Divreihem' refer?

(b) Considering that this Mishnah appears in the first chapter of Pesachim, what is the disadvantage of learning this way?

(a) How does Rebbi Eliezer explain the Pasuk in Korach "es Mishmeres Terumosai", and what does he learn from it?

(b) What does Rebbi Yehoshua say about this? How does he interpret the Pasuk "es Mishmeres Terumosai"?

(c) Seeing as Rebbi Yehoshua is actually permitting one to increase Tum'ah in a case when the Terumah has to be burnt anyway, why can this not be the case of Rebbi Yehoshua to which Rebbi Meir in our Mishnah is referring?

(a) A barrel of Terumah wine broke in the upper wine-press (where the grapes are placed), and the wine is now starting to spill into Tamei Chulin wine lying in the lower wine-press.
What do Rebbi Eliezer and Rebbi Yehoshua agree that one should do, if possible - even though that will cause him a loss?

(b) If only Tamei vessels are available, Rebbi Eliezer rules that one must simply allow the wine to spill into the lower wine-press, and allow the wine there to become Meduma.
What can one do with Meduma wine which is Tamei?

(c) What does Rebbi Yehoshua say in this case?

(d) From which of the above statements does Rebbi Meir derive his opinion in our Mishnah (that it is permitted to burn Terumah Tehorah together with Terumah Temei'ah on Pesach)?

(a) Rebbi Yossi queried Rebbi Meir as follows: According to Rebbi Chanina S'gan ha'Kohanim, both the Shelishi and the Rishon are Tamei so how can Rebbi Meir derive from there a concession to burn Tahor Chametz together with Tamei Chametz (as we asked above at the end of 14b)?
Is it not clear from here that Rebbi Meir learnt his Din from Rebbi Chanina S'gan ha'Kohanim, and not from Rebbi Yehoshua (So how can Resh Lakish cite Rebbi Yehoshua as Rebbi Meir's source)?

(b) On what grounds does Rebbi Yossi disagree with Rebbi Meir, even after he discovers that Rebbi Meir bases his opinion on that of Rebbi Yehoshua? Why should Rebbi Yehoshua permit saving the wine in Tamei vessels, but not burning the Tahor Chametz Terumeh together with the Tamei?

(c) And what will Rebbi Yossi say to the fact that, in our Mishnah too, it will now mean using two lots of wood, one to burn the Terumah Tehorah, and the other, to burn the Terumah Temei'ah?
Does that not constitute a loss?

Answers to questions



(a) Rav Asi quoting Rebbi Yochanan, establishes the Machlokes between Rebbi Meir and Rebbi Yossi specifically in the *sixth* hour; in the *seventh*, even Rebbi Yossi will agree that one may burn Terumah Tehorah together with Terumah Temei'ah.
Why is that?

(b) Assuming that, in the opinion of Rebbi Yochanan, Rebbi Meir learns his Din from Rebbi Chanina S'gan ha'Kohanim (and this is the Gemara's conclusion), how will we have to establish Rebbi Chanina S'gan ha'Kohanim?

(c) According to this explanation, why did Rebbi Meir not learn his Din from Rebbi Yehoshua?

(d) Even according to Rebbi Yochanan, the Gemara did contend with the possibility that Rebbi Meir learnt his Din from Rebbi Yehoshua.
What would be the difference whether he learns it from Rebbi Chanina S'gan ha'Kohanim or from Rebbi Yehoshua?

6) Is there a proof for Rebbi Yochanan (that Rebbi Yossi agrees in the seventh hour) from the Beraisa, where Rebbi Yossi quotes Beis Hillel, who permits burning Pigul, Nosar and Tum'ah together, because they all carry an Isur d'Oraysa - even though they are not Tamei?


(a) Is bread that has gone moldy still subject to Tum'as Ochlin?

(b) Who must be the author of the Beraisa which permits burning it together with Tamei bread on Pesach, and why?

(c) Why did the Gemara presume this to be a proof for Rebbi Yochanan (that Rebbi Yossi agrees in the seventh hour)?

(d) Why is this in fact, not a proof?

(a) Since, according to Rebbi Yochanan, Rebbi Meir's source is Rebbi Chanina S'gan ha'Kohanim, why does the Tana in our Mishnah continue 'u'Modeh Rebbi Eliezer ve'Rebbi Yehoshua' ... ?

(b) But how can we say that Rebbi Yehoshua agrees by Teluyah and Temei'ah, seeing as, even there, he only permits Gerama, but not actually being Metamei the Teluyah with one's hands?

(a) Since Rebbi Meir derives his Din from Rebbi Chanina S'gan ha'Kohanim, what is now the problem with Rebbi Yossi's statement 'Einah Hi ha'Midah'?

(b) Rebbi Yirmiyah resolves this problem by saying 'Hacha be'Besar she'Nitme'u be'Mashkin Askinan; ve'Azda Rebbi Meir le'Ta'amei, ve'Rebbi Yossi le'Ta'amei'.
What does he mean by that?

(c) If we take Rebbi Yirmiyah literally, one will be burning a Sheni le'Tum'ah together with a Rishon, in which case, we will not be adding Tum'ah at all.
How then, will we have to interpret his words?

(a) Since food renders other food Tamei only mi'de'Rabbanan, burning the two pieces of flesh together will only render the Shelishi, a Sheini de'Rabbanan (which is how Ravina, in the previous explanation, learnt). What is the problem with that, according to Rebbi Yirmiyah?

(b) How will Rebbi Yirmiyah deal with this? How will he have to hold with regard to Kodshim being Metamei Kodshim?

(c) Rebbi Meir interprets Rebbi Chanina S'gan ha'Kohanim to mean that one may turn a Sheini de'Rabbanan into a Sheini d'Oraysa, which is why he derives from there the concession of making a Sheni de'Rabbanan, a Sheni d'Oraysa.
How does Rebbi Yossi interpret Rebbi Chanina S'gan ha'Kohanim?

Answers to questions
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