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prepared by Rabbi Eliezer Chrysler
Kollel Iyun Hadaf, Jerusalem

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Pesachim 6


(a) They asked Rava whether an animal of 'Arnona' is subject to the Din of Bechorah if it gave birth.
What is an animal of 'Arnona', and why might it be Patur from Bechorah?

(b) When is it in fact, Chayeves and when is it Peturah - according to the first Lashon of the Gemara?

(c) According to the second Lashon, Rava exempts an animal of 'Arnona' from the Bechorah, even if one is able to buy himself out with money. What does he say about a dough of Arnona - with regard to the Chiyuv of Challah? Is there any reason to exempt such a dough from Chalah?

(d) Then why is there a difference between the two cases?

(a) If a gentile enters one's house on Pesach with Chametz in his hand, is one obligated to destroy it?

(b) What will be the Din if he deposited the Chametz with the Jew? When is he obligated to destroy it and when is he not?

(c) The Beraisa quotes the Pasuk "Lo Yimatzei".
How could this apply to either of the latter two cases mentioned in the previous question?

(d) The Mishnah in Avodah Zarah forbids renting a house to a gentile as a residence (even in Chutz la'Aretz), because he will use it for idolatrous purposes. This suggests that someone who rents (or borrows) a house does not become its owner (even temporarily).
In that case, how does lending or renting a room to a gentile remove the Isur of having Chametz in one's possession?

(a) What must one do discovering Chametz in one's house on Yom-Tov? Why is that necessary?does the owner not transgress in the interim, the La'avin of 'Ba'al Yera'eh' and 'Bal Yimatze'?

(b) Why does the owner not, in the interim, transgress the La'avin of 'Ba'al Yera'eh' and 'Bal Yimatze'?

(c) Why can he not just burn it?

(d) Why is it not necessary to cover the Chametz if it belongs to Hekdesh?

(a) What must a Jew do with Chametz that a non-Jew deposited by him?

(b) Are we speaking when the Jew accepted responsibility or not?

(a) Is someone who goes overseas obligated to search for Chametz before leaving, if goes overseas ...
  1. ... within thirty days of Pesach?
  2. ... prior to that?
(b) What did Rava declare when Abaye restricted the *former* case to a person who intended to return on Pesach?

(c) So how does Rava word the restriction?

(d) What similar Din did Rava cite with regard to someone who turns his room (which has not been searched for Chametz) into a storehouse, filling it with grain (that is definitely not Chametz) before Pesach?

(a) The source of this period of thirty days lies in a Beraisa.
What does the Tana of the Beraisa say?

(b) In this context, what is the significance of ...

  1. ... 'Sho'alin'?
  2. ... 'Dorshin'?
(c) From where does the Tana, in turn, learn this Din?
Answers to questions



(a) Raban Shimon ben Gamliel disagrees with the Tana Kama of the Beraisa. According to him, how long before the Yom-Tov do we say 'Sho'alin ve'Dorshin', and how does he refute the Tana Kama's proof?

(b) The Gemara initially thinks that Raban Shimon ben Gamliel's source is the Pasuk in Bo "ha'Chodesh ha'Zeh Lachem".
How is that contention rejected?

(a) The Gemara finally learns Raban Shimon ben Gamliel's source from a 'Gezeirah Shavah' "Midbar" (in Beha'aloscha) from "Midbar" (in Bamidbar) to teach us that the former was said on Rosh Chodesh, two weeks before they brought the Korban Pesach in the second year. What do we learn from the fact that the Pasuk in Bamidbar, which refers to Rosh Chodesh *Iyar*, is mentioned before the Pasuk in Beha'aloscha, which took place one month earlier, on Rosh Chodesh *Nisan*?

(b) How does Rav Papa prove that it is impossible to apply this principle in *one* Inyan (topic).

(c) What will Rav Papa do, according to those who maintain that we can learn a 'K'lal u'F'rat which are distant from each other? Can we not infer that even in *two* Inyanim, there must be a chronological order?

(a) 'ha'Bodek Tzarich she'Yevatel'.
Is that because he may have overlooked some crumbs of less than a Kezayis?

(b) How do we know that crumbs do not adopt Chashivus as part of the house, which is Chashuv?

(c) Why then, *is* Bitul necessary?

(d) Why can he not simply be Mevatel that fine loaf when he finds it?

(a) What else, besides Chametz, does the Torah place in one's domain, even though, strictly speaking, it is not his?

(b) Why did Chazal fix Bitul after the Bedikah at night-time? Why not in the fourth or the fifth hour?

(c) Then why not make the Bitul at the *beginning* of the sixth hour (according to Rashi - or at the *end* of the sixth hour, according to Tosfos)?

Answers to questions
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