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prepared by Rabbi Eliezer Chrysler
Kollel Iyun Hadaf, Jerusalem

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Pesachim 5


(a) How do we know that the time for the Mitzvah of Bi'ur Chametz is not the *night* of the fourteenth?

(b) Then perhaps the Mitzvah falls due already in the morning?

(c) What does Tana de'Bei Rebbi learn from the Pasuk "ba'Rishon be'Arba'ah-Asar Yom la'Chodesh"(written in connection with the Korban Pesach)?

(a) What does Rav Nachman bar Yitzchak learn from "ha'Rishon Adam Tivaled"? (Iyov)

(b) So how do we know that "u'Lekachtem Lachem ba'Yom ha'Rishon" (Emor) does not mean the day before?

(c) Here too, the Torah writes "Ach ba'Yom ha'Rishon Tashbisu" ... "Shiv'as Yamim Matzos Tochelu", and we try to learn that Rishon means the day before from the extra 'Hey' of 'ha'Rishon'.
What is the Gemara's objection to that?

(d) On what grounds does the Gemara object to learning the 'Hey' of ha'Rishon by the Yom-tov of Succos, to preclude Chol ha'Mo'ed from the Din of Mikra Kodesh?

3) Finally, Rav Nachman bar Yitzchak *does* learn from the 'Hey' of 'ha'Rishon', that we know (the Isur of Chametz) the day before, . How does he account for the extra 'Hey' in 'ha'Rishon' by ...
  1. ... the Mikra Kodesh of Pesach?
  2. ... the Mikra Kodesh of Succos?
  3. ... the Mitzvah of Lulav?


(a) According to Rava, we learn the time for destroying Chametz from the Pasuk in Ki Sisa "Lo Sishchat Al Chametz Dam Zivchi".

(b) Why can this not simply mean that each person must destroy his Chametz just before he brings his Korban Pesach?

(a) This is also the opinion of Rebbi Yishmael in a Beraisa. Rebbi Akiva learns it from a Pasuk in Bo "Ach ba'Yom ha'Rishon Tashbisu ... Kol Melachah Lo Sa'asu".
How does he learn it from there?

(b) What three principles does Rava learn from Rebbi Akiva's opinion?

(c) How does Rebbi Yossi Hagelili learn the Mitzvah to destroyChametz on the fourteenth from "Ach ba'Yom ha'Rishon Tashbisu".
Why can this Pasuk not be speaking on Yom-Tov?

Answers to questions



(a) What do we learn from the Pasuk in Bo ...
  1. ... "Lo Yera'eh *Lecha* Se'or be'Chol Gevulecha"?
  2. ... "Lo Yimatzei"?
(b) Why does the Torah need to add "Shiv'as Yamim Se'or Lo Yimatzei be'Vatechem"?

(c) And what do we learn from "be'Chol Gevulecha" - in the first Pasuk.

(d) How do we know that Bal Yera'eh and Bal Yimatzei, Bal Yatmin and Bal Yekabel Pikdonos min ha'Nochri apply even by Gevulim; and that she'Lecha I Ata Ro'eh, Aval Ata Ro'eh shel Acherim applies even to houses?

(a) The Beraisa learns that "Lo Yimatzei" incorporates only the Chametz of non-Jews who are *not* under your jurisdiction (or who do not live with you in the same courtyard) and "be'Vateichem" comes to include the Chametz of non-Jews who *are*.
Why does this seem ridiculous?

(b) Abaye answers 'Eipuch'! Switch them round!
How does Rava answer the Kashya?

(c) How does Rava explain the fact that the Pasuk quoted by the Beraisa here is "Lo Yimatzei be'Vateichem" comes to be stringent, and not "Lecha", as we are now saying?

(a) How do we reconcile the Reisha, which forbids accepting securities of Chametz from gentiles (from "Lo Yimatzei"), and the Seifa, which permits it (from "Lecha")?

(b) What did Rava tell the inhabitants of Mechuza in this regard?

(c) What is the problem with this from those who hold 'Davar ha'Gorem le'Mamon, La'av ke'Mamon Dami'?

(d) How does the Gemara solve this problem?

(a) In the second Lashon, the Gemara takes the opposite viewpoint.
What is the Kashya from those who hold 'Davar ha'Gorem le'Mamon, ke'Mamon Dami'?

(b) What does the Gemara answer?

Answers to questions
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