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Pesachim 64


OPINIONS: The Mishnah says that when the three groups slaughtered their animals for the Korban Pesach on the day before Pesach, "they recited Hallel." Who recited Hallel?

(a) TOSFOS (DH Kar'u, and in Sukah 54a, end of DH Shayar) writes that it was the Levi'im who said Hallel. He bases this on the Tosefta (Pesachim 4:9) which says, "The Levi'im stood on their platform, and they would finish the Hallel in song." This is also consistent with the Mishnah in Erchin (10a) which states that there are twelve days in the year on which the Chalil is played in the Mikdash (which consist of all the times at which Hallel is recited) and one of them is the day on which the Korban Pesach is slaughtered. This must be referring to the Levi'im, because only the Levi'im were permitted to play musical instruments in the Mikdash (and the topic of the Mishnah there is the Shiras ha'Levi'im in the Mikdash).

(b) RASHI in our Sugya says that the Mishnah is referring to "all of the groups." It seems from Rashi that all of the people in the three groups recited Hallel. Rashi makes a similar statement in Sukah (54b, DH Erev Pesach). From the words of Rashi, Tosfos infers that according to Rashi all the people in the Azarah read the Hallel and not just the Levi'im.

This is not entirely evident from what Rashi says here or in Sukah. All Rashi says is that the Hallel was recited during each group's entry into the Azarah; he does not say that it was the groups themselves that sung the Hallel. However, Rashi later (95b, DH Lailah) says that the reason Hallel is said during the Shechitas ha'Pesach is because the Nevi'im decreed that the Jewish people recite Hallel at every Yom Tov. That Hallel is the one which we say in the synagogue on Yom Tov, which is said by everyone. Similarly, the Gemara there proves that the Jews said Hallel when they slaughtered the animals for the Korban Pesach, because "how could it be that the Jews slaughter their Pesachim without saying Hallel?" Rashi there says that every performance of a Mitzvah needs Hallel. From this it is evident see that everyone, not just the Levi'im, recited the Hallel. (Tosfos, who holds that only the Levi'im recited the Hallel, will explain that the Gemara there is referring to the *Levi'im* saying Hallel when the *Yisraelim* slaughtered their Korbanos.)

As for the Mishnah in Erchin, Rashi may explain that even though the Levi'im played the Chalil on the day that the Korban Pesach was slaughtered, that does not mean that they also recited the Hallel. The Tosefta too is not problematic, because Rashi will explain that the Tosefta means that the *Levi'im* stood on the Bimah and played the Chalil and "they" (= the Yisraelim) said Hallel.

(c) However, RASHI in Erchin (10a, DH v'Lo Hayah) writes clearly that the Levi'im would sing Hallel on the days that the Chalil was played. Therefore, others conclude that Rashi understood that both the Levi'im and the Yisraelim in the Azarah said Hallel.

1. TOSFOS CHADASHIM on the Mishnayos suggests that the Levi'im said Hallel, like the Tosefta says, and everyone else answered to their Hallel, for the Hallel is said responsively (Sotah 26b).

2. The BRISKER RAV (in the beginning of Hilchos Korban Pesach) cites the Yalkut in Parshas Beha'aloscha which states that the Chatzotzeros were blown during the Shechitah of the Korban Pesach. The Brisker Rav points out that the musical instruments are always connected to the Shirah which the Levi'im sing. Therefore, he concludes that there are two different obligations to sing Hallel at the time of the Shechitas ha'Pesach. One obligation is a requirement in the Shir of the Korban, which the Levi'im are required to sing when the Korban is brought. This obligation applies only to the Levi'im. A second obligation is the requirement to recite Hallel as an exclamation of rejoicing and praise to Hashem upon the occasion of performing a Mitzvah, as the Gemara later (95b) says. This applies to the Yisraelim. Therefore, both Hallels -- that of the Levi'im and that of the Yisraelim -- would be said at the same time.

(He explains that the reason why the Levi'im sing the Shir of Hallel and not any other Shir when the Korban Pesach is slaughtered is because the Yerushalmi in Sukah (ch. 6) brings a source to show that whenever the Chalil is played, Hallel is recited.)


QUESTION: The Mishnah says that after the three groups have slaughtered their Korbanos, "the first group sits in the Har ha'Bayis, the second in the Chayil, and the third one in its place [in the Azarah] it stands."

Why does the Mishnah add that the third group "stands" in its place, and not say simply "the third one in its place" as it says with regard to the second group? Furthermore, why does it reverse the order of the predicate? It said that the first group "sits in the Har ha'Bayis," while for the third group it says, "the third one in its place it stands" ("bi'Mekomo Omedes," as opposed to "Omedes bi'Mekomo")?

ANSWER: REBBI AKIVA EIGER (in Mishnayos) quotes the Yerushalmi in Sotah (8:8 also cited by TOSFOS, Sotah 40b, DH v'Ha'amar) which explains this point in our Mishnah. The Yerushalmi says that no one but kings of Davidic ancestry were permitted to sit in the Azarah (Sotah 40b). Therefore, the Mishnah makes a point of saying that the third group -- which remained in the Azarah after slaughtering their Korbanos -- had to stand.

This might also be the reason behind the reversal of the order in the text of the Mishnah. In a normal sentence, the causative element precedes the effect. The first group "sits in Har ha'Bayis" -- they needed a place to sit, so they sat where they happened to be, in Har ha'Bayis. The last group had to stay in the Azarah, and *as a result* they had to stand. Therefore the Mishnah says that "bi'Mekomo Omedes" because it was the place in which they were that was the cause of their having to stand. (M. Kornfeld)

OPINIONS: The Mishnah says that the Yisrael (non-Kohen) would slaughter his Korban Pesach and the Kohen would be Mekabel the blood. The Gemara infers that the Mishnah is teaching that the requirement that the Kohen perform the Avodah applies only from the Kabalah of the blood and on. The parts of the Avodah prior to the Kabalas ha'Dam (such as the Shechitah) may be done by a non-Kohen.
(a) The Gemara's understanding of the Mishnah implies that there is no specific Mitzvah for the Yisrael himself to do the Shechitah of his Korban. This is indeed the point that RASHI makes on the Mishnah when he says that "the Yisrael slaughters [the Korban], *if he wants*;" that is, there is no obligation for him to do it. (b) However, earlier in the Maseches, RASHI (7b, DH Pesach) writes that it is a Mitzvah for the owner to slaughter his own Korban Pesach. In fact, this is clear from the Gemara in Kidushin (41b) which teaches that the source for the principle of "Shelucho Shel Adam Kemoso" (something done by a person's Shaliach is considered as though it was done by the person himself) is from the fact that one Shaliach may slaughter the Korban Pesach on behalf of all of the members of the Chaburah. We see from there that there is an obligation on each owner to slaughter the Korban, because if not, why is a Shaliach needed?

The SEFAS EMES points out that this is also evident from Rashi in Divrei ha'Yamim II (30:16) who ipmlies that it is better for the owner to slaughter his Korban than for the Kohen to do it for him, presumably because of "Mitzvah Bo Yoser mi'b'Shelucho."

If so, why does the Gemara not say that the Mishnah, when it says that the Yisrael slaughters the Korban, is teaching that the Yisrael has a *Mitzvah* to slaughter his Korban? Why does the Gemara only focus on the statement that the Kohen is Mekabel the blood?

It could be that the Gemara does not want to say the Mishnah is teaching that the Yisrael is obligated to slaughter the Korban, because the owner of the Korban might also be a Kohen! Second, a Kohen could be made a Shaliach by the owner, and thus the owner would still fulfill the Mitzvah to slaughter his Korban. Third, the MINCHAS BARUCH (Siman 14) proves that b'Di'eved, if someone who is not the owner, nor is he a Shaliach of the owner, performs the Shechitah, the Shechitah is nevertheless Kosher. That could be what the Gemara is saying. The Gemara is bothered why the Mishnah says that a Yisrael does the Shechitah, when it *could* be done by someone else (at least b'Di'eved)? It must be that the Mishnah is teaching specifically that *after* the Shechitah, *no one* except a Kohen may do the Avodah.

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