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Nedarim 81

NEDARIM 81 - dedicated by Mrs. G. Turkel (Rabbi Kornfeld's grandmother), an exceptional woman who accepted all of Hashem's Gezeiros with love and who loved and respected the study of Torah. Tehei Nafshah Tzerurah bi'Tzror ha'Chaim.


(a) Shmuel teaches us that unwashed clothes lead to insanity.
What will be the result of ...
  1. ... uncombed hair?
  2. ... an unwashed body?
(b) What makes insanity worse than the other two?

(c) They sent from Eretz Yisrael that one should beware of the above, and that one should study Torah in a group.
Based on the Pasuk in Balak "Yizal Mayim mi'Dalyav", what other warning did they issue?

(d) Why can expect more success teaching a poor person Torah that a rich one?

(a) According to Rav Yosef, it is common for the sons of Talmidei-Chachamim not to follow in their fathers' footsteps, so that people should not believe that Torah is an inheritance; according to Rav Shisha Brei de'Rav Idi, it is to prevent them from possibly becoming conceited.
Which similar reason does Mar Zutra give?

(b) Rav Ashi attributed it to the fact that the Talmidei-Chachamim used to call others donkeys.
What final reason does Ravina give?

(c) Ravina bases his explanation on a statement by Rav Yehudah Amar Rav. Based on the Pasuk in Yirmiyah "Mi ha'Ish he'Chacham Veyaven es Zos", what is it that neither the sages nor the prophets nor even the angels were able to explain?

(d) How did Rav Yehudah Amar Rav extrapolate the solution to the problem from the Pasuk "Vayomer, Al Azvam es Torasi ... "? What does "ve'Lo Halchu Bah" come to add to "Lo Sham'u be'Koli"?

(a) Why can we not explain the Pasuk "Al Azvam es Torasi" literally?

(b) What is the significance of the fact that Yisrael did not recite a B'rachah before studying Torah? Why should an ordinary Asei have the power to cause Yisrael's downfall?

(a) Why did Isi bar Yehudah not attend Rebbi Yossi's Shiurim for three days?

(b) Vardimus, Rebbi Yossi's son, cited a source from a Pasuk for his father's ruling. With regard to the cities of the Levi'im, the Pasuk in Masei writes "u'Migresheihem Yihyu li'Vehemtam ... u'le'Chol Chayasam".
Why can "u'le'Chol Chayasam" not refer to ...

  1. ... undomesticated animals?
  2. ... regular livelihood?
(c) Then to what *does* it refer?

(d) How does this now bear out Rebbi Yossi?

(a) The Rambam rules like Rebbi Yossi, due a statement by Rav Huna.
Which statement?

(b) We prefer to rule like the Chachamim however.
What does this ruling constitute?

(c) We rule this way for one of two reasons. One of them is because of the principle 'Halachah ke'Rabim'.
What is the other?

(a) 'Amar Rebbi Yossi, Ein Eilu Nidrei Inuy Nefesh'.
What leads us to believe that Rebbi Yossi concedes that Rechitzah and Kishut are considered Beino le'Veinah?

(b) How might we explain Rebbi Yossi, even assuming that they are not?

(c) According to Rav Ada bar Ahavah, Rebbi Yossi does indeed concede that Rechitzah and Kishut constitute Beino le'Veinah.
On what grounds does Rav Huna disagree why this? Why might a husband not be fussy about his wife not taking a bath (see Rosh)?

Answers to questions



(a) We have learned in a Beraisa that a husband can annul Nidrei Inuy Nefesh irrespective of whether they are Beino le'Veinah, or Beinah le'Vein Acheirim. 'Konem Peiros Alai' is an example of Nidrei Inuy Nefesh which is not Beino le'Veinah.
What is an example of Nedarim which are not Inuy Nefesh, and which are ...
  1. ... Beinah le'Vein Acheirim (and which he cannot annul)?
  2. ... Beino le'Veinah (and which he can annul)?
(b) Why did the Tana switch the order to first explain Nedarim Beinah le'Vein Acheirim and then those which are Beino le'Veinah?

(c) Why is 'she'Lo Eten Teven Lifnei Behemtecha ... ' not considered Beino le'Veinah?

(a) In the list of Devarim she'Beino le'Veinah, the Tana lists three things which require Hafarah; two of them are 'she'Lo Ekachel, ve'she'Lo Efarches'. What is the third?

(b) In what way are the following three Nedarim different than the previous ones: not to make his bed, not to pour out her husband's wine, and not to wash his hands, face and feet?

(c) Raban Gamliel Omer, Yafer. she'Ne'emar "Lo Yachel Devaro".
What does this mean? Is the obligation to annul the Neder mi'd'Oraysa or mi'de'Rabbanan?

(d) Alternatively, Raban Gamliel Darshens from "Lo Yachel Devaro" that a Chacham cannot annul his own Nedarim. Seeing as Raban Gamliel (in the previous D'rashah) did not learn anything from "Lo Yachel Devaro", how can we use the term 'alternatively' ('Davar Acher')?

9) We cited this Beraisa in order to resolve our She'eilah whether Rebbi Yossi permits a husband to annul the Nedarim of Rechitzah and Kishut because of Devarim she'Beino le'Veinah or not.
How do we achieve this from 'she'Lo Ekachel, ve'she'Lo Efarches ... Yafer Mishum Devarim she'Beino le'Veinah'?


(a) We learned in the Beraisa 've'she'Lo Ashamesh Mitasi, Yafer Mishum Devarim she'Beino le'Veinah'. Why can this not speak when she said 'Hana'as Tashmishi Alecha'?

(b) So it must be speaking when she said 'Hana'as Tashmishcha Alai', and it requires Hafarah, like Rav Kahana.
What does Rav Kahana say?

(c) Who is the author of the Beraisa which prohibits permitting a prohibition to people who have undertaken it, because of "Lo Yachel Devaro", even though they did undertake it in the form of a Neder?

(d) On the assumption that the Halachah is like Raban Gamliel, how will this affect a case where someone undertakes not to eat meat or drink wine during a certain time-period each year, and then one year, he is invited to a Simchah where meat and wine are served?

(a) The Tana Kama of a Mishnah in Nega'im says ...
  1. ... 'Kol ha'Nega'im Adam Ro'eh Chutz mi'Nidrei Atzmo'.
    What does Rebbi Yehudah say?
  2. ... 'Kol ha'Nedarim Adam Matir Chutz mi'Negi'ei Atzmo'.
    What does Rebbi Yehudah say?
(b) Why does the Ramban rule like Rebbi Yehudah in the latter case?

(c) The Yerushalmi rules that if someone forbids the residents of a certain town to have benefit from him, the Neder cannot be revoked by a Chacham who resides in that town.
Would the same apply if he forbade benefit from the residents upon himself? Why should there be a difference between the two cases?

(a) Rava asked Rav Nachman whether Tashmish, according to the Rabbanan, falls under the category of Inuy Nefesh or Beino le'Veinah.
What difference does it make under which category it falls?

(b) On what grounds do we reject the proof from the Mishnah which says (regarding the Neder of a woman 'Netulah Ani min ha'Yehudim'), 'Yafer Chelko u'Meshamsaso', that it must be Inuy Nefesh?

(c) The She'eilah whether Tashmish is considered Inuy Nefesh or Devarim she'Beino le'Veinah remains unresolved.
What is the Halachah?

(d) Why can we not resolve the She'eilah from Shmuel, who says a little later 'Aval Hana'as P'loni Alai, Meifer'.

Answers to questions

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