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prepared by Rabbi Eliezer Chrysler
Kollel Iyun Hadaf, Jerusalem

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Nedarim 77


(a) What She'eilah do we ask with regard to the Mishnah in Shabbos 'Mafirin Nedarim be'Shabbos ve'Nish'alin li'Nedarim she'Hein le'Tzorech Shabbos'?

(b) Beside the fact that Hafaras Nedarim does not require a Chacham or three Hedyotos (ordinary people) like Hataras Nedarim does, why else might it differ from Hataras Nedarim in this regard?

(c) Rav Zuti cited a Beraisa that requires Tzorech Shabbos by Hafaras Nedarim, too.
How did Rav Ashi prove him wrong from our Mishnah?

(a) How do we reconcile Rav Zuti's Beraisa with our Mishnah?

(b) Who is the Tana who holds that Hafaras Nedarim requires Tzorech Shabbos?

(c) What is the Halachah? Does Hafaras Nedarim require Tzorech Shabbos or not?

(a) 've'Nish'alin li'Nedarim le'Tzorech ha'Shabbos'.
Does this concession apply even if there was time to annul them before Shabbos?

(b) Why did Rav Yosef want to restrict the concession to annul Nedarim on Shabbos to a Yachid Mumcheh, but not to three Hedyotos?

(c) How did Abaye prove him wrong? Which three cases did he cite as precedents?

(a) Rebbi Aba Amar Rav Huna Amar Rav 'Halachah Mefirin Nedarim ba'Laylah'. On what grounds do we query this statement?

(b) How do we therefore amend it?

(c) What did Rav Huna reply when Rebbi Aba asked him whether Rav really said this?

(d) What did Rebbi Aba mean when he then asked Rav Huna whether he meant 'Ishtik' or 'Shasi'?

(a) According to a different text, it was Rav Huna who was questioning Rebbi Aba's motive for querying him.
What did he then mean by 'Ashkayan O Ashtikan'?

(b) How did Rav Ika bar Avin resolve Rebbi Aba's question (according to the alternative text, it is an independent statement)?

(c) What is 'Kituna de'Bei Rav'?

Answers to questions



(a) Rava Amar Rav Nachman lists all the leniencies of Hataras Nedarim, over judging, including that of performing it standing.
How do we reconcile this with Raban Gamliel, who got off his donkey and sat on the ground in order to annul someone's Neder?

(b) We do not agree with the Rashba.
What leniency does the Rashba come up with, based on the ruling 'Poschin ba'Charatah'?

(a) Rava seemed rather surprised at what they used to do in Eretz Yisrael. What did the Rabbanan instruct the son of Rav Huna bar Avin to do after annulling his Neder?

(b) How did they derive this from the Pasuk in Ki Seitzei "ve'Chi Sechdal Lindor, Lo Yihyeh Becha Chet"?

(a) 'ha'Omer le'Ishto Kol Nedarim she'Taduri, I Efshi she'Taduri', or 'Kol Nedarim she'Taduri, Ein Zeh Neder, Lo Amar K'lum'.
If we take the future tense of 'she'Taduri' literally, what does this Beraisa mean to say?

(b) Which of the cases in the Beraisa must have been learned erroneously, according to this interpretation?

(c) What will the Din be if he says 'Yafeh Asis', 'Ein Kamosech' or 'Im Lo Nadart, Madirech Ani'?

(d) On what grounds is the Hakamah invalid in the Reisha and valid in the Seifa?

(a) How will we explain the previous Beraisa if we want to retain the case of 'Ein Zeh Neder'?

(b) Why does the Tana then use the future tense?

(c) On what basis is a Lashon that applies by inference valid by Hakamah but not by Hafarah?

(a) The Tana in a Beraisa states 'Lo Yomar Adam le'Ishto be'Shabbos, Mufar Lechi, Bateil Lechi'.
What then, should he say?

(b) What is the reason for this?

(c) Why can it not be because of a decree on account of Hataras Nedarim, which is basically forbidden on Shabbos?

(d) What does Rebbi Yochanan comment on this Beraisa?

11) The Tana specifically says 'Lo Yomar Adam le'Ishto be'Shabbos Mufar Lechi, Bateil Lechi, ke'Derech she'Omer Lah be'Chol'.
Does this mean that during the week, he is obligated to use this Lashon?


(a) Beis Shamai in a Beraisa says 'be'Shabbos Mevatel be'Libo, be'Chol Motzi bi'Sefasav'.
What do Beis Hillel say?

(b) Does this mean that Beis Shamai permit Hafaras Nedarim which is not verbalized on Shabbos, and Beis Hillel, even during the week?

(c) Some have the text (in the second half of Beis Shamai's statement) 've'la'Erev be'Chol, Motzi bi'Sefasav'.
What are Beis Shamai then saying?

(d) On what grounds do we reject this text?

13) Bearing in mind what we just learned, that 'Ein Ka'an Neder', or 'I Efshi she'Taduri' is not a Lashon Hafarah - how can Beis Hillel permit Bitul be'Leiv even in conjunction with 'T'li ve'Ichli, T'li u'shsi'?

Answers to questions

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