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prepared by Rabbi Eliezer Chrysler
Kollel Iyun Hadaf, Jerusalem

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Nedarim 64


(a) 'Rebbi Eliezer Omer, Poschin le'Adam bi'Chevod Aviv ve'Imo'.
What does he mean?

(b) What do the Chachamim say?

(a) What does Rebbi Tzadok mean, when regarding Rebbi Eliezer's statement, he comments 'ad she'Poschin bi'Chevod Aviv ve'Imo, Yiftechu Lo bi'Chevod ha'Makom'!

(b) The Rabbanan retorted 'Im Kein, Ein Nedarim'.
What did they mean?

(c) In that case, why does Rebbi Eliezer permit 'bi'Chevod Aviv ve'Imo'? Why does he not apply the same S'vara there too?

(d) What does the Yerushalmi rule with regard to 'Poschin bi'Chevod Rabo'?

(a) 've'Od Amar Rebbi Eliezer, Poschin be'Nolad'.
What is Nolad?

(b) Elsewhere, we query the word 've'Od', because the Rabbanan interrupted the two statements of Rebbi Eliezer.
Why do we not query it here?

(c) On what grounds do the Rabbanan disagree with Rebbi Eliezer regarding 'Nolad'?

(d) The Tana gives as examples of 'Nolad', someone who forbade himself Hana'ah from his friend who subsequently became a Sofer, or who married off his daughter.
What is the Tana's third example (concerning a house)?

Answers to questions



(a) The Chachamim told Rebbi Tzadok that Rebbi Eliezer agreed that one cannot use the honor of his parents as a Pesach to annul a vow because 'Im Kein, Ein Nedarim'. Abaye interprets this to mean 'Im Kein, Ein Nedarim Nitarin Yafeh' (which we already explained in our Mishnah). Rava interprets it as 'Im Kein, Ein Nedarim Nish'alin le'Chacham.
What does he mean?

(b) In that case, on what grounds does Rebbi Eliezer argue by 'K'vod Aviv ve'Imo? Why is he not afraid there too, that the people will take the take the law into their own hands and annul the Neder themselves?

(c) We learned in our Mishnah that, Nedarim which concern one's parents, the Chachamim concede can be nullified using their honor as a Pesach.
Why does this not present Abaye with a problem? Why are we not afraid that he will be embarrassed to say that he does not care for their K'vod?

(d) How will Rava explain the Chachamim? Why is he not afraid that the Noder will then nullify the Neder without bothering to go to a Chacham?

(a) Alternatively, Rava agrees with Abaye with regard to K'vod ha'Makom ('Im Kein, Ein Nedarim Nitarin Yafeh').
What is he then referring to when he says 'Ein Nedarim Nish'alin'?

(b) What is then Rebbi Eliezer's reason?

(c) What is the advantage of this explanation?

(a) When Hashem told Moshe in Midyan that it was now safe to return to Egypt "Ki Meisu Kol ha'Anashim ha'Mevakshim es Nafshecha", to whom was he referring?

(b) Considering that it was Yisro who made Moshe swear that he would not leave Midyan, how could Hashem use the death of Dasan and Aviram as a Pesach?

(c) What does Rebbi Eliezer learn from the Pasuk "Ki Meisu ... "?

(d) The Chachamim disagree with Rebbi Eliezer, due a statement made by Rebbi Yochanan Amar Rebbi Shimon bar Yochai.
What did he say concerning "Nitzim" and "Nitzavim" in the Torah? How does this then justify the Chachamim's viewpoint?

(a) What does Resh Lakish learn from Rachel's statement to Ya'akov "Havah Li Banim, ve'Im Ayin, Meisah Anochi"?

(b) Besides a poor man and someone without children, the Beraisa lists two other people who are considered as being dead.
What does the Tana learn from the Pasuk ...

  1. ... in Beha'aloscha "Al Na Tehi ka'Meis"? About whom was this said?
  2. ... in Eichah "be'Machashakim Hoshivani ke'Meisei Olam"?
(c) How do we know that Dasan and Aviram were stricken with poverty, and not ...
  1. ... blindness?
  2. ... Tzara'as?
  3. ... childlessness?
(d) And how do we know that they were not blind or stricken with Tzara'as in Egypt, but became cured at Matan Torah, when all ailments were cured?
Answers to questions

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