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prepared by Rabbi Eliezer Chrysler
Kollel Iyun Hadaf, Jerusalem

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Nedarim 63


(a) According to Rebbi Meir, the date on which the first Revi'ah is due is on the third of Marcheshvan, and the second, on the seventh; according to Rebbi Yehudah, the first is due on the seventh and the second on the seventeenth.
What is the date of the third rainfall, according to ...
  1. ... Rebbi Meir?
  2. ... Rebbi Yehudah?
(b) What are the three rain seasons according to Rebbi Yossi?

(c) The significance of the first date is to ask for rain. Rebbi Yossi specifically states the significance of the third one.
What is it?

(d) What is the significance of the middle date?

(a) What did Raban Shimon ben Gamliel say in a Beraisa about rain that began to fall on the first of the three dates and subsequently fell for seven consecutive days?

(b) Like which of the three previous Tana'im does he hold?

(c) Why is Raban Shimon ben Gamliel's statement quite unnecessary from his own point of view?

(d) Then what is he saying to the Rabbanan?

(a) In which point do the Rabbanan argue with Raban Shimon ben Gamliel?

(b) We conclude that the Beraisa of Raban Shimon ben Gamliel is speaking about a case of 'ad ha'Geshamim'.
How did we initially interpret it? What were we asking on Rebbi Zeira (who, by the way, is also the one to establish the significance of the middle date in the first Beraisa, by Noder)?

(a) What will be the duration of the Neder if, in a year that will turn into a leap-year, someone says 'Konem Yayin she'Eini To'em ...
  1. ... ha'Shanah' or 'Shanah Zu'?
  2. ... Shanah Achas'?
(b) What is the reason for the latter Din?

(c) What does the Rashba say about this case if the Noder added the words 'mi'Yom Zeh' (when he has no option but to begin immediately)?

(d) What ramifications does this have regarding renting a house?

(a) According to the Rashba, it is only if he actually declares the Neder on Rosh Hashanah, that the hirer will have thirteen months in the house.
Why is that? Why will he not have thirteen months if he says 'ha'Shanah' or 'Shanah Zu' later in the year?

(b) On what grounds do we refute the Rashba's explanation?

(c) In which point do we disagree with him?

(d) In that case, how will we explain the Din with regard to someone who purchases a house in a walled city, in whose connection the Gemara says in Erchin, that were it not for a specific Pasuk, the sale would be finalized in twelve months even if it was a leap-year?

6) We also disagree with the Rashba's distinction between 'Shanah Zu' and 'Shanah Achas'.
What will the Din then be if someone declares 'Konem Yayin Shanah Achas' ...
  1. ... and it turns out to be a leap-year?
  2. ... and, believing that the Halachah was like the Rashba, he wants to commence his Neder half a year later.
    Can he make up for not having begun immediately?
(a) Until when is the Noder forbidden to drink wine if, in a leap-year, he says ...
  1. ... 'ad Rosh Chodesh Adar'?
  2. ... 'ad Sof Adar'?
(b) In the latter case, some texts read 'ad Sof Adar Sheini'.
What is the logic behind this text?

(c) According to Rebbi Meir, if one writes a Sh'tar in Adar Rishon, one dates it 'Adar Rishon; if one writes it in Adar Sheini, he dates it 'Adar' S'tam.
What does Rebbi Yehudah say?

(d) We initially assume that the author of our Mishnah is Rebbi Yehudah, who holds that S'tam Adar refers to Adar Rishon. According to the text 'ad Sof Adar Sheini' that we quoted above we will simply reiterate what we wrote earlier (that the two Adarim are considered one, so that the end of Adar is synonymous with the end of Adar Sheini). How does Abaye nevertheless reconcile the Mishnah with Rebbi Meir?

Answers to questions



(a) We prove Abaye right from the Beraisa 'ad Rosh Chodesh Adar, ad Rosh Chodesh Adar ha'Rishon. Im Haysah Shanah Me'uberes, ad Rosh Chodesh Adar ha'Sheini'.
What is wrong with the literal interpretation of the Beraisa (whose author is obviously Rebbi Meir)?

(b) How do we therefore interpret it to prove Abaye's distinction?

(c) In any event, we established our Mishnah when they did not know that it would be a leap-year.
How does this pose a Kashya on the alternative text that we quoted above?

(d) Based on the principle 'Rebbi Meir ve'Rebbi Yehudah, Halachah ke'Rebbi Yehudah', we rule like Rebbi Yehudah (regarding S'tam Adar).
What ramifications does this have with regard to a Sh'tar that was written in Adar Sheini as Adar S'tam?

(a) If someone declares a prohibition on wine 'ad she'Yehei ha'Pesach, considering that he said 'ad she'Yehei', why does Rebbi Yehudah in our Mishnah only prohibit wine until Seider-night?

(b) Until when will he be forbidden to eat meat, if he said 'Konem Basar ... ad she'Yehei ha'Tzom'?

(c) What Chidush does this case teach us over and above the previous one?

(d) Rebbi Yossi b'Rebbi Yehudah adds 'Konem Shum she'Eini To'em ad she'Tehei Shabbos, Eino Asur Ela ad Leilei Shabbos'.
Why is that? What Chidush does he add to the previous case cited by his father?

(a) The Ramban rules like the Rabbanan, who argue with Rebbi Yehudah (and certainly with Rebbi Yossi b'Rebbi Yehudah).
Why do they then agree with Rebbi Yehudah in 'ha'Noder min ha'Mevushal', in the case of 'Ta'an ve'Hizi'a ... Amar Konem Tzemer ... Olah Alai, Mutar Lehiskasos ve'Asur Lehafshil le'Acharav'?

(b) On what basis does the Ra'ah disagree with the Ramban, and rule like Rebbi Yehudah in our Mishnah?

(c) The Ramban proves his point from the fact that the Mishnah earlier 'ad ha'Pesach ... Asur ad she'Yeitzei, ad she'Yehei, Asur ad she'Yeitzei', which clearly refers to our Sugya of Konem Yayin (seeing as the Tana does not mention any other case in between), from which we see that the the Rabbanan hold 'ad she'Yehei, Asur ad she'Yeitzei' (not like Rebbi Yehudah).
How does the Ra'ah refute the Ramban's proof?

(a) The Mishnah states that, if the Noder stipulated that, unless his friend accepts a Kur of wheat and two barrels of wine on behalf of his son, he (the Noder) will not accept any benefit from him, the Neder does not require Hatarah.
Why not?

(b) Rebbi Meir and the Rabbanan argue in the Seifa, in the reverse case to the previous one (when the Madir forbids the Mudar to have Hana'ah from him unless he gives *his* son a Kur of wheat and two barrels of wine. Like before, the Chachamim do not require Hatarah in this case.
Why is that?

(c) What does Rebbi Meir say in the latter case?

(d) Does he also argue with the Tana Kama in the Reisha?

(a) Rebbi Meir and the Rabbanan argue in the Seifa, in the reverse case to the previous one (when the Madir forbids the Mudar to have Hana'ah from him unless he gives *his* son a Kur of wheat and two barrels of wine. Like before, the Chachamim do not require Hatarah in this case.
Why is that?

(b) What does Rebbi Meir say in the Seifa?

(c) Does he also argue in the Reisha?

(a) If someone declares 'Konem she'Hi Nehenis Li Le'olam', in response to efforts by his sister to marry her daughter, or following his divorce of his wife, they are permitted to benefit from him.
Why is that?

(b) Why does the Tana refer specifically to a case of marrying his sister's daughter?

(c) And if, in response to his friend's efforts to invite him for a meal, he declares 'Konem le'Veischa she'Eini Nichnas' or 'Tipas Tzonan she'Eini To'em Lach', why does he permit him to enter his house and to have a drink?

(d) And what does the Tosefta say about someone who responds to his friend's efforts to get him to partake of a feast that he is preparing, by declaring 'Konem le'Veischa she'Eini Nichnas'?

Answers to questions

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