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prepared by Rabbi Eliezer Chrysler
Kollel Iyun Hadaf, Jerusalem

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Nedarim 15

NEDARIM 14 & 15 - The Sichel family of Baltimore Maryland has dedicated two Dafim, in prayer for a Refu'ah Shelemah for Mrs. Sichel, Miriam bas Shprintza -- may she have a speedy and full recovery.


(a) When the Tana of our Mishnah writes 'Konem she'Ani Yashein ... ', he cannot be speaking literally, because sleep is abstract. Neither can he be referring to someone who said 'Konem Eini be'Sheinah' for an indefinite period, because of what Rebbi Yochanan said.
What did Rebbi Yochanan say about someone who made a Shevu'ah not to sleep for three days?

(b) Why can the Tana not then be speaking ...

  1. ... when the Noder said 'Konem Eini be'Sheinah sle'Machar im Ishan ha'Yom'?
  2. ... when he said 'Konem Eini be'Sheinah ha'Yom'?
(c) So to which case *is* the Tana referring? How do we know that the Noder slept on the first day?

(d) How do we answer this Kashya on Rav Yehudah?

(a) How will we explain the Lashon of the Mishnah 'Harei Zeh be'Bal Yacheil', according to ...
  1. ... the conclusion?
  2. ... according to the Kashya, when we thought that he is allowed to sleep on the first day?
(b) According to the latter explanation, when we asked above 'Why the Tana cannot be speaking when the Noder said 'Konem Eini be'Sheinah le'Machar im Ishan ha'Yom' - why can we not explain 'Harei Zeh be'Bal Yacheil' in the same way?

(c) Ravina interprets 'she'Ani Yashein' literally.
How does he explain the 'Bal Yacheil' of our Mishnah? Since when does a Neder apply to something abstract?

(d) How does this explain the Tana's use of the term 'Harei Zeh be'Lo Yacheil Devaro'? What does he say in the equivalent case in Shevu'os?

3) We have a precedent for 'Bal Yacheil' mi'de'Rabbanan.
In which regard does the Tana of the Beraisa bring it?


(a) The Mishnah in ha'Noder min ha'Yerek states 'she'At Nehenis Li ad ha'Pesach im Teilchi le'Veis Avich ad ha'Chag, Halchah Lifnei ha'Pesach Asurah be'Hana'aso ad ha'Pesach'.
What can we infer from this Mishnah that poses a Kashya on Rav Yehudah?

(b) How does Rebbi Aba resolve it?

(c) According to the Rambam, it is the husband who receives Malkos should he contravene the Neder by giving his wife Hana'ah.
Why is that?

(d) What do those who disagree with the Rambam say?

(a) What does the Tana of the Mishnah then mean when he continues 'Achar ha'Pesach, Harei Zeh be'Bal Yacheil Devaro'? What exactly, is the case?

(b) Does this prove that one is permitted to break the Neder before the condition (like Rav Nachman)?

(c) What is then the Chidush of the Mishnah?

Answers to questions



(a) The Mishnah in ha'Noder min ha'Yerek then discusses a case of 'she'At Nehenis Li ad ha'Chag im Teilchi le'Veis Avich ad ha'Pesach', forbidding her to derive benefit from him after Pesach if she went to her father's house before Pesach. The Tana concludes 'u'Muteres Leilech Achar ha'Pesach'.
What is the Chidush in this statement? What might we otherwise have thought?

(b) What can we infer from the Tana, that poses a Kashya on Rav Yehudah?

(c) How does Rava reconcile Rav Yehudah with the Mishnah?

(a) When someone says 'Kikar Zu Alai ha'Yom, Im Eilech le'Makom P'loni le'Machar', the Tana of a Beraisa rules 'Achal, Harei Zeh be'Lo Yeilech'.
Why is there no Kashya from this Tana (who seems to permit eating the loaf on the first day) on Rav Yehudah, who forbids it?

(b) What led us to believe that he was permitted to eat the loaf Lechatchilah?

(c) How have we now dispensed with the Kashya?

(a) The Seifa of the Beraisa states '*Halach*, Harei Zeh be'Bal Yacheil Devaro'.
What do we infer from the Beraisa, that poses a Kashya on Rav Yehudah?

(b) How will Rav Yehudah Amar Rav answer this Kashya?

(c) In fact, it would have been possible for the Tana to have written 'Mehalech', even with reference to 'Achal', in the Reisha.
How would we then explain the apparent discrepancy between the Reisha, which places the Isur of Bal Yeilech on the Noder if he went, and the Seifa, which permits him to go?

(d) Then on what grounds does the Tana nevertheless prefer not to write 'Mehalech'?

(a) Based on the Pasuk in Mishpatim "She'eirah, K'susah ve'Onasah Lo Yigra", what is the problem with our Mishnah, which validates the Neder of a man who says to his wife 'Konem she'Ani Mashamshech'?

(b) What does Rava say about Konamos?

(c) Then what is the problem with our Mishnah? Why can we not say there too, that the Konem removes the woman's Shibud?

(d) Our answer to the Kashya is based on Rav Kahana.
What distinction does Rav Kahana make between a woman who says to her husband 'Tashmishi Alecha' and one who says 'Hana'as Tashmishcha Alai'?

(a) What makes 'Konem she'Ani Mashamshech' a Neder mi'de'Rabbanan?

(b) How do we know that the Tana is not speaking when the Noder said 'Konem Gufech Alai mi'Tashmish' (which would make it a Neder d'Oraysa)?

(c) How is it then possible for a Neder de'Rabbanan to negate the Chiyuv Onah which is d'Oraysa?

(d) Why is the Neder effective anyway, in spite of the principle 'Mitzvos La'av Lehanos Nitnu' (the objective of Mitzvos is not the physical benefit that one derives from them)?

(a) What do the following have in common:
  1. 'Shevu'ah she'Eini Yashein' ... she'Eini Medaber' ... she'Eini Mehalech'?
  2. 'Korban ... Lo Ochal Lach' ... she'Ochal Lach'; 'Hei Korban, she'Ochal Lach'; 'la'Korban, Lo Ochal Lach'?
(b) What are the two possible meanings of 'Korban ... Lo Ochal Lach'? Why is the Neder not then valid?

(c) Why is 'Hei Korban' not a valid Neder?

(d) Why can the correct text not be 'ha'Korban Ochal Lach'?

12) Why does the Tana of the Mishnah not consider 'Lo Korban, Lo Ochal Lach' to be a valid Neder?

Answers to questions

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