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prepared by Rabbi Eliezer Chrysler
Kollel Iyun Hadaf, Jerusalem

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Nazir 3

NAZIR 3 (21 Tishrei, Hoshana Raba) - dedicated by Gedalyah Jawitz of Wantagh, N.Y., honoring the Yahrtzeit of his father, Yehuda ben Simcha Volf Jawitz.


(a) We already explained in our Mishnah that 'Hareini ka'Zeh' is a Nazir, only if a Nazir walks past at the time.
What Lashon will he have to use for N'zirus to take effect whilst he is holding his hair (see Hagahos ha'Rav Renshberg)?

(b) 'Hareini Mesalsel' too, is a Nazir, provided the Noder is holding his hair.
What will it refer to if he is not?

(c) What is the meaning of the Pasuk in Mishlei "Salselah u'Seromimcha"?

(a) 'Harei Alai Lishlo'ach Pera, Harei Zeh Nazir'.
What might this mean, based on the Pasuk in Shir ha'Shirim "Shelachayich Pardes Rimonim"?

(b) We initially think that, based on the Pasuk in Iyov "ve'Sholei'ach Mayim al-P'nei Chutzos", it might mean that he is undertaking to cut off his hair (to send it away).
How do we ultimately interpret this Pasuk?

(c) How might we have interpreted "Shelachayich Pardes Rimonim", if "ve'Sholei'ach Mayim ... " had meant to send the water away?

(d) How can we learn that 'Shalach' means to let grow, on the basis of one Pasuk, when, more often than not, the word means to send away (which as we just saw, has the opposite connotation)?

(a) What do we initially learn with regard to the Kohanim by whom it is written in Yechezkel "u'Pera Lo Yeshaleichu" via a 'Gezeirah-Shavah' from Nazir "Gadeil Pera"?

(b) What does this indicate regarding our Din in Nazir?

(c) Why could we not learn this from the Pasuk "u'Pera Lo Yeshaleichu" without the 'Gezeirah-Shavah'?

(d) Why must the Noder say 'Harei Alai Legadel Pera' and not just 'Harei Alai Pera' in order to be a Nazir?

(a) 'Harei Alai Tziprin, Rebbi Meir Omer, Nazir'.
According to Resh Lakish, how does Rebbi Meir learn this from the Pasuk in Daniel "Ad di Sa'areih ke'Nishrin Rabah, ve'Tufrohi ke'Tziprin"?

(b) What indication do we have that the Noder was referring to (the hair of) N'zirus (see 'Rashi')?

(c) What do the Rabbanan say?

Answers to questions



(a) According to Rebbi Yochanan, even Rebbi Meir does not rely on the juxtaposition of Tziprin to hair.
Then what is the basis of Rebbi Meir's opinion? Why does he say 'Harei Alai Tziprin, Nazir'?

(b) How do we know that he did not undertake to bring birds ...

  1. ... as a gift-offering?
  2. ... on behalf of a Metzora?
  3. ... on behalf of a Tamei Nazir?
(c) And why do we initially think that he did not undertake to bring the bird-offering on behalf of the Tahor Nazir, should he become Tamei and be required to bring birds?
(a) When we just asked 've'Dilma Harei Alai Tziprei Metzora ka'Amar', why did we not answer there too, that it speaks when he had in mind to bring the birds of a Nazir?

(b) In that case, why do we not say the same here; namely, that since birds are mentioned by a Tamei Nazir, to say that he means to become a Tahor Nazir is 'Ein Piv ve'Libo Shavin'?

(c) Tosfos concludes however, that we cannot be speaking when the Noder had in mind to become a Nazir who brings birds when he becomes Tamei, because this idea is not mentioned in the Gemara.
On what basis do we then assume that he undertook to become a Nazir now (in spite of the difficulties involved), rather than to bring the Korbanos of a Nazir who is Tamei?

(a) What will Rebbi Yochanan hold in a case where the Noder says explicitly 'Tziprin ha'Semuchin le'Sei'ar Alai', and no Nazir happens to be walking past at the time? What would the Noder then have had in mind?

(b) And what will Resh Lakish hold in a case where he says 'Tziprin', and a Nazir is walking past?

(c) Then why did Resh Lakish find it necessary to establish Rebbi Meir when the Noder specifically said 'Tziprin ha'Semuchin le'Sei'ar'?

(d) In fact, Rebbi Yochanan and Resh Lakish agree in almost every case. Which is the only point over which they argue?

8) If the Noder would declare 'Harei Alai Nishrin' or 'Harei Alai Tufrin' (which are even closer to Sei'ar than Tziprin) would he also become a Nazir?


(a) What do we try to prove from the Beraisa 'ha'Omer Yemin, Harei Zu Shevu'ah'? On whom is this a Kashya?

(b) We counter this proof however, with a Beraisa which quotes a Pasuk in Yeshayah "Nishba Hashem bi'Yemino".
What does the Tana of the Beraisa extrapolate from there?

(a) If someone declares N'zirus from grape-pits or skins, or from Tum'as Meis (exclusively), will he be a Nazir?

(b) Why does the Tana need to add 've'Chol Dikdukei N'zirus Alav'?

(c) The author of our Mishnah cannot be Rebbi Shimon.
Why is that? What does Rebbi Shimon say?

(d) What two options does the Noder have of adopting N'zirus according to Rebbi Shimon?

11) Rebbi Shimon learns from the Pasuk "*mi'Kol* Asher Ye'aseh mi'Gefen ha'Yayin" that only someone who undertakes a full N'zirus becomes a Nazir. But that Pasuk speaks only about drinking wine and grape-products? How do we know that he is also obligated to accept the Dinim of shaving and Tum'ah?


(a) What do the Rabbanan learn from "mi'Yayin ve'Sheichar Yazir"?

(b) And what does Rebbi Shimon learn from there?

(c) We ask 'Harei Mushba ve'Omed Alav me'Har Sinai?'
What is strange about this Kashya?

(d) So how does Rabeinu Tam amend the Kashya?

Answers to questions

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