(Permission is granted to print and redistribute this material
as long as this header and the footer at the end are included.)


prepared by Rabbi Eliezer Chrysler
Kollel Iyun Hadaf, Jerusalem

Previous daf

Kidushin 34

KIDUSHIN 32-35 - Ari Kornfeld has generously sponsored the Dafyomi publications for these Dafim for the benefit of Klal Yisrael.


(a) Succah, Lulav and Shofar all fall under the category of 'Mitzvos Asei she'ha'Z'man Geramah'.
Which other two Mitzvos does the Tana list?

(b) What makes Tefilin 'Z'man Geramah'?

(c) The Tana lists four 'Mitzvos Asei she'Lo ha'Z'man Geramah'; Mezuzah, Ma'akeh (placing a parapet around one's roof) and Hashavas Aveidah.
What is the fourth?

(a) What Kashya do we ask from ...
  1. ... Matzah, Simchah and Hakhel?
  2. ... Talmud Torah, Piryah ve'Rivyah and Pidyon ha'Ben?
(b) From where do we learn that women are ...
  1. ... obligated to eat Matzah on Pesach (even though it is time-related)?
  2. ... exempt from Piryah ve'Rivyah (even though it is not)?
(c) What important principle does Rebbi Yochanan extrapolate from all this?
(a) What does the Mishnah in Eruvin (re. Eruv Chatzeiros) say about water and salt?

(b) Which other two foods do we know to be not eligible?

(c) What do all these foods have in common that invalidates them from being used as an Eruv?

(d) So what have we now proved from the Sugya in Eruvin?

(a) We learn that women are Patur from Mitzvos Asei she'ha'Z'man Geramah from a 'Mah Matzinu' from Tefilin.
And from where do we learn that they are Patur from Tefilin?

(b) Based on the principle that when there is a Hekesh le'Chumra and a Hekesh le'Kula, we always Darshen le'Chumra, why do we not rather compare Tefilin to Mezuzah (in the first Parshah of the Sh'ma, where they are juxtaposed)?

(c) Seeing as the Torah does not specifically obligate women to put up Mezuzos, why do we not exempt them on account of their being compared to Talmud-Torah (in the second Parshah of the Sh'ma)?

(d) What problem do we have with the D'rashah "ha'Ezrach", from which we learn that women are Patur from sitting in a Sucah?

(a) In reply to the previous Kashya, Abaye explains that if not for "ha'Ezrach", we would have obligated women to sit in a Sucah, because the Torah writes in Emor "ba'Sukos Teishvu".
What would we have learned from there?

(b) According to Rava, we would have obligated women to sit in the Sucah from a 'Gezeirah-Shavah'.
Which 'Gezeirah-Shavah'?

Answers to questions



(a) What does the Mitzvos of 'Re'iyah' comprise?

(b) Seeing as it is 'Z'man Geramah', why do we need the Pasuk "Zechurcha" (in Ki Sisa) to exempt women from performing it?

(c) We learn the exemption of women from time-related Mitzvos Asei, from Tefilin.
How does Abaye answer the Kashya that we should rather obligate them, from the Mitzvah of Simchah?

(d) How will Abaye explain the fact that a widow is also obligated in the Mitzvah of Simchah? What is the source for this?

(a) Why can we not learn from the Mitzvah of Hakheil (where the Torah specifically incorporates women in the Mitzvah) that women should be obligated to fulfill 'Mitzvos Asei she'ha'Z'man Geramah'?

(b) Tefilin and Re'iyah, we explain, are not considered 'Sh'nei Kesuvim ha'Ba'im ke'Echad', because both Pesukim are needed.
Why would we not have exempted women from ...

  1. ... Re'iyah with a 'Mah Matzinu' from Tefilin?
  2. ... Tefilin with a 'Mah Matzinu' from Re'iyah?
(c) Had the Torah obligated women in the Mitzvah of Hakheil, would we have been able to extrapolate that they are also obligated in the Mitzvah of Matzah?

(d) Then why are Matzah and Hakheil considered 'Sh'nei Kesuvim ha'Ba'im ke'Echad'? Let us say there too, that both Pesukim are necessary.

(a) Is the principle 'Sh'nei Kesuvim ha'Ba'im ke'Echad Ein Melamdin unanimous?

(b) We learn women's obligation in Mitzvos Asei she'Lo ha'Z'man Gerama from Mora (see Tosfos DH 'Nashim Chayavos').
What is Mora?

(c) We do not rather learn from Talmud-Torah that women are Patur from such Mitzvos, because Talmud-Torah and P'ru u'Revu are considered 'Sh'nei Kesuvim ha'Ba'in ke'Echad'. This will not work however, according to Rebbi Yochanan ben Berokah.
Why not? What does Rebbi Yochanan ben Berokah say?

(d) With which Mitzvah then, will Talmud-Torah combine to make it 'Sh'nei Kesuvim ha'Ba'im ke'Echad'?

Answers to questions

Next daf


For further information on
subscriptions, archives and sponsorships,
contact Kollel Iyun Hadaf,