REVIEW QUESTIONS ON GEMARA AND RASHI
prepared by Rabbi Eliezer Chrysler
Kollel Iyun Hadaf, Jerusalem
Previous daf Kidushin 15
KIDUSHIN 14&15 - sponsored by a generous grant from an anonymous donor. Kollel Iyun Hadaf is indebted to him for his encouragement and support and prays that Hashem will repay him in kind.
(a) What does the Tana Kama of the Beraisa learn from "Ha'anek Ta'anik
(b) On what grounds do we reject the suggestion that Rebbi Elazar learns
from there "Lo" 've'Lo le'Yorshav'?
(c) We conclude that his D'rashah from there is based on Rebbi Nasan's
What does Rebbi Nasan say regarding a case where Reuven owes
Shimon money and Shimon owes Levi?
(d) What does Rebbi Elazar now learn from "Ha'anek Ta'anik Lo"?
(a) On what grounds do the Rabbanan disagree with Rebbi Elazar in this case?
(b) What induces Rebbi Yitzchak in a Beraisa to explain "Ki Mishneh S'char
Sachir Avadcha" to mean that the Eved Ivri's master gives him a Shifchah
Cana'anis? Why can the Pasuk not be taken literally?
(a) What do the Rabbanan learn from the Pasuk in Mishpatim "Im Adonav Yiten
(b) What does Rebbi Elazar learn from there?
(c) How do the Rabbanan learn this from the Pasuk "Ki Mishneh S'char
(d) How does Rebbi Elazar counter this?
(a) Rebbi Eliezer ben Ya'akov explains the Pasuk in Behar "ve'Shav el
Mishpachto ... " (to teach us that an Eved Ivri goes out with the advent of
Why can the Pasuk refer neither to a Mocher Atzmo nor to a
(b) So what is the Pasuk referring to?
(c) How do we try to prove from here that Rebbi Eliezer ben Ya'akov is the
Tana who does not hold of "Sachir" "Sachir"?
(d) How does Rav Nachman bar Yitzchak repudiate this suggestion? Even
assuming that he learns the 'Gezeirah-Shavah', why would Rebbi Eliezer ben
Ya'akov not learn Machruhu Beis-Din from Mocher Atzmo in this regard?
(a) We establish "ve'Shavtem Ish el Achuzaso" by a Nirtza (to teach us that
when the Yovel arrives, he goes free).
Answers to questions
How does Rava bar Shilo extrapolate
from the Pasuk itself that it is speaking about a Nirtza?
(b) Having taught us that ...
(c) And why does the Torah find it necessary to write both the Pasuk of
"ve'Shavtem" (by Nirtza) and "va'Avado Le'olam"? Having written ...
- ... a Machruhu Beis-Din goes free in the Yovel, why does the Torah to repeat the Din by a Nirtza?
- ... a Nirtza goes free in the Yovel, why does the Torah to repeat the Din by a Machruhu Beis-Din?
- ... "Le'olam", why did it need to write "ve'Shavtem"?
- ... "ve'Shavtem", why did it need to write "Le'olam"?
(a) The Torah writes in Behar (in connection with a Jew who sells himself to
a Nochri "ve'Im Lo Yiga'el be'Eileh".
What does "be'Eileh" refer to?
(b) Rebbi in a Beraisa, extrapolates from there "be'Eileh Hu Nig'al, ve'Eino
How does he learn a 'Kal va'Chomer' from Mocher Atzmo
that, if not for "be'Eileh", he would go out after six years?
(c) What leads us to initially believe that Rebbi is the Tana who does not
hold of "Sachir" "Sachir"?
(d) Based on the Pasuk (written by a Nimkar le'Akum) "O Dodo O ben Dodo
Yig'alenu", how does Rav Nachman bar Yitzchak reject the proof from there?
(a) Rebbi Yossi Hagelili and Rebbi Akiva disagree with Rebbi. Rebbi Yossi
Hagelili Darshens from "be'Eileh", 'be'Eileh le'Shichrur, ve'Sha'ar Kol Adam
What does this mean?
(b) What does Rebbi Akiva say?
(c) We initially base their dispute on their respective interpretations of
the Pasuk "ve'Im Lo Yiga'el be'Eileh, ve'Yatza bi'Sh'nas ha'Yovel".
does Rebbi Yossi Hagelili learn his opinion from here?
(d) Rebbi Akiva Darshens the Pasuk "ve'Im Lo Yiga'el Ela be'Eileh, ve'Yazta
bi'Sh'nas ha'Yovel", meaning that it is when he is redeemed by relatives
that he must work until the Yovel.
Why is this interpretation
(a) So we cite another source (though still connected with the D'rashah from
"be'Eileh", as we shall soon see) to explain their Machlokes, based on the
Pasuk "O Dodo ... Yig'alenu, O Hisigah Yado, ve'Nig'al". "O Dodo ...
Yig'alenu" obviously refers to the redemption of relatives.
To what does
(b) Bearing in mind that the Torah places Ge'ulas Atzmo in the middle, how
do we now attempt to interpret the Machlokes between Rebbi Yossi Hagelili
and Rebbi Akiva?
- ... "O Hisigah Yado" refer?
- ... "ve'Nig'al" refer?
(c) Then why do we need "be'Eileh"? How would we have learned without it?
(d) On what grounds do we reject this explanation too?
(a) We finally base the Machlokes on S'varos.
Answers to questions
What is the S'vara of ...
(b) How will Rebbi Akiva explain "be'Eileh", which until now, we have seen,
supported Rebbi Yossi Hagelili's explanation?
- ... Rebbi Yossi Hagelili? Why does he think that by Ge'ulas Acheirim, the Eved Ivri is more likely to have to work for those who redeem him?
- ... Rebbi Akiva? Why does he think that this is more likely to be the case by Ge'ulas K'rovim?
(c) Rebbi Chiya bar Aba Amar Rebbi Yochanan restricts the above opinions to
the two Tana'im concerned, but according to the Chachamim, he goes free both
by Ge'ulas K'rovim and by Ge'ulas Acheirim.
Who is the Rabbanan? On what
grounds do they argue with Rebbi Yossi Hagelili and Rebbi Akiva?
(d) How then, does Rebbi interpret the Pasuk "ve'Yatza bi'Sh'nas ha'Yovel"?