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prepared by Rabbi Eliezer Chrysler
Kollel Iyun Hadaf, Jerusalem

Kidushin 2

KIDUSHIN 2-4 - sponsored by a generous grant from an anonymous donor. Kollel Iyun Hadaf is indebted to him for his encouragement and support and prays that Hashem will repay him in kind.

Please note that unless otherwise indicated, we follow the explanation of Rashi. Consequently, our notes and comments do not necessarily have a bearing on the practical Halachah.


(a) In which three ways can a woman be acquired (i.e. by means of Kidushin) as a 'wife'?

(b) And in which two ways can she acquire herself?

(c) What are the connotations of acquiring herself?

(d) Is giving the woman the money, the Sh'tar or performing Bi'ah all that is needed to effect the transaction?

(a) According to Beis Shamai, 'Kesef' means at least one Dinar.
What do Beis Hillel say?

(b) What is the difference between a Dinar and a P'rutah? How many P'rutos are there in a Dinar?

(c) In what way is a P'rutah different than most other coins?

(d) How many P'rutos are there in an Italian Isar?

(a) A Yevamah is acquired with Bi'ah only.
What are the ramifications of this statement?

(b) What is 'Ma'amar'?

(c) If the money of Ma'amar does not acquire a Yevamah, what is the significance of 'Ma'amar'?

(d) In how many ways can she acquire herself?

(a) What is the significance of "Kichah" "Kichah" from S'dei Efron?

(b) How does this help us to explain why the Tana of our Mishnah uses the terminology 'ha'Ishah *Nikneis*, whereas in the second Perek, he says 'ha'Ish *Mekadesh*'?

(c) What do we learn from the Pasuk ...

  1. ... in Vayechi "ha'Sadeh Asher Kanah Avraham"?
  2. ... in Yirmiyah "Sados ba'Kesef Yiknu"?
Answers to questions



(a) Why does the Tana not say in the second Perek 'ha'Ish *Mekadesh*' (like he says here 'ha'Ishah *Nikneis*')?

(b) He deliberately avoids saying 'ha'Ish Koneh' in the Reisha, and 'u'Makneh' in the Seifa, because of the case of the death of her husband, which is hardly due to any action on the part of her husband.
What other reason do we give for avoiding this Lashon, that even pertains to Get as well?

(c) Why do the Rabbanan refer to Eirusin as 'Kidushin'?

(d) What do we learn from the Pasuk in Yisro "ve'Hoda'ata Lahem es ha'Derech Yeilchu Bah"? Why is this Pasuk quoted here?

(a) What does the Tana in Zavin mean when he says 'be'Shiv'ah Derachim Bodkin es ha'Zav'? Why does a Zav require examination?

(b) Four of the seven ways of bringing on the discharge are eating or drinking too much, illness or carrying a heavy load.
What are the other three?

(c) Why do we quote the Pasuk in Ki Savo "be'Derech Echad Yeitz'u Eilecha u've'Shiv'ah Derachim Yanusu Lefanecha" in connection with the Zav?

(d) What dual problem are we now faced with?

(a) Why in effect, does ...
  1. ... the Pasuk in Yisro treat 'Derech' as a feminine noun, and the Pasuk in Ki Savo as a masculine one? What do we prove from the Pasuk in Tehilim "Toras Hashem Temimah ... "?
  2. ... our Mishnah treat 'Derech' as a feminine noun, and the Mishnah in Zavin as a masculine one?
(b) Why indeed does the Tana in Zavin confine the Mishnah to a Zav? Why does he not incorporate a Zavah in the Halachah?
(a) We concluded that our Tana uses the feminine 'Shalosh' because of 'Derachim' has feminine connotations.
Why does he not use the noun 'Devarim', which is exclusively masculine, and write 'bi'Sheloshah Devarim'?

(b) How do we then account for the fact that Kesef and Sh'tar ...

  1. ... are also listed together with Bi'ah?
  2. ... are the majority of cases, and it is not the way of the Tana to adjust the Lashon, based on the minority case?
(c) Alternatively, we establish our Mishnah like Rebbi Shimon. How does Rebbi Shimon explain the Torah's use of the phrase "Ki Yikach Ish Ishah" rather than "Ki Silakach Ishah le'Ish"? How does this explain the Tana's use of 'Derachim' as opposed to 'Devarim'?

(d) Why does the Tana in Zavin use the Lashon 'be'Shiv'ah Derachim' rather than 'be'Shiv'ah Devarim'?

Answers to questions

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