POINT BY POINT SUMMARY
Prepared by Rabbi P. Feldman
of Kollel Iyun Hadaf, Yerushalayim
Rosh Kollel: Rabbi Mordecai Kornfeld
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Previous daf Kidushin 18
1) DIFFERENCES BETWEEN MALE AND FEMALE SLAVES
(a) (Beraisa): Some things apply only to a male Hebrew slave,
others only to an Amah:
2) RESALE OF AN AMAH
1. A male slave leaves after 6 years, in Yovel, or when
the master dies - this is not true by an Amah;
(b) Contradiction (Mishnah): In addition to what frees a male
slave, an Amah also goes free when she becomes a Na'arah.
2. An Amah leaves when she becomes an adult (Na'arah),
and she cannot be sold more than once, and we redeem
her against his will - these are not true of a male
(c) Answer (Rav Sheshes): Our Beraisa, which said that what
frees a male slave does not free an Amah, is when Yi'ud
was done (the master married her).
(d) Objection: If so, obviously she does not go out as a male
slave - she needs a Get!
(e) Answer: One might have thought, her initial status (that
she leaves after 6 years or Yovel) remains - we hear,
this is not so.
(f) Question: If Yi'ud was done, she does not go out at
(g) Answer: The Beraisa says, if Yi'ud was not done, she
additionally goes out at Na'arus.
(h) (Beraisa): She cannot be sold more than once...(these are
not true of a male slave).
(i) Question: This implies that a male slave can be resold!
1. (Beraisa): "(He will be sold) for his theft" - and
not to pay the double (extra) payment that a thief
must pay, not for the fine that plotting (false)
witnesses must pay;
(j) [Version #1 (Rashi) Answer #1 (Rava): He can only be sold
once to pay for 1 theft, but can be resold to pay for
more than 1 theft.
2. "For his theft" - once he is sold, you cannot sell
(k) Objection (Abaye): "In his theft" connotes more than one
(l) Answer #2 (Abaye): Rather, he can only be sold once for
thefts in one judgment, but he can be resold if he is
again brought to judgment for theft.]
(m) [Version #2 (Tosfos) Answer #1 (Rava): He can be resold
to pay for 1 theft, but not to pay for more than 1 theft.
(n) Objection (Abaye): "In his theft" connotes all thefts
(from 1 person)!
(o) Answer #2 (Abaye): Rather, he can only be resold for
thefts from one person, but not for thefts from another
(p) (Beraisa): If he stole 1000, and is worth 500 as a slave
- he is sold twice; if he stole 500, and is worth 1000 as
a slave, he is not sold at all;
1. R. Eliezer says, if he stole his value, he is sold;
if not, not.
(q) (Rava): R. Eliezer can refute the Chachamim!
1. Chachamim say, if he stole 500, and is worth 1000,
he is not sold at all - this is because he must be
sold entirely to pay for his theft, not half sold;
2. Also if he stole 1000, and is worth 500 - he must be
sold for all his theft, not half of it!
(a) (Beraisa): We redeem her against his will.
(b) (Rava): This means, against the master's will.
(c) Objection (Abaye): Do you hold, we can force the master
to free her, even though he only receives a document in
which she obligates herself to pay her redemption when
she will get the money?!
1. It is absurd that we would force someone holding a
pearl (something valuable, an Amah) to give it up
for a (currently) worthless shard (the document)!
(d) (Abaye): Rather, we force her father to redeem her (if he
has the money), because of the blemish to the family.
(e) Question: If so, we should also force the relatives of a
male slave to redeem him for this reason!
(f) Answer: This will not help, he will again sell himself.
(g) Question: The same can be said of an Amah, the father
will resell her!
(h) Answer: The Beraisa says, he cannot resell her; it is as
1. (Beraisa): A man can engage his daughter, and again
(after she is widowed or divorced) engage her; he
can sell her as a slave and resell her (after she
goes free); he can engage her after selling her; he
cannot sell her after having engaged her;
(i) These Tana'im argue as the following Tana'im.
2. R. Shimon says, just as he cannot sell her after
having engaged her, he cannot resell her.
1. (Beraisa - R. Akiva): "b'Bigdo (in his betraying)
her" - once (her master) spread his cloak (Beged)
over her (for Yi'ud), her father cannot sell her;
(this is as Chachamim)
(j) Question: On what do they argue?
2. R. Elazar says, "in his betraying her" - once (her
father) betrayed her (by selling her), he cannot
sell her (as R. Shimon). (This is as Rashi - Tosfos
switches the opinions of R. Akiva and R. Eliezer.)
(k) Answer: R. Eliezer holds, (when a word in the Torah in
not read as it is written) we primary follow the way it
is written; R. Akiva holds, we follow the way it is read;
R. Shimon holds, we follow both (therefore, he says that
she cannot be sold after engagement or after being sold).
(a) Question (Rabah bar Avuha): Does Yi'ud make engagement or
1. This determines whether the master inherits her and
becomes Tamei to engage in her burial, and whether
he can annul her vows by himself.
(b) Answer #1 (Beraisa): "in his betraying her" - once he
spread his cloak over her, her father cannot sell her.
1. He cannot sell her - but he can engage her!
(c) Rejection (Rav Nachman bar Yitzchak): No, the Beraisa
speaks of regular engagement.
2. Suggestion: If Yi'ud makes Nisu'in - once she had
Nisu'in, her father has no jurisdiction over her!
3. Rather, Yi'ud only makes engagement.
1. It means - once her father handed her over to
someone that is obligated to feed her, clothe her
and have regular relations with her (i.e. he engaged
her), he cannot sell her.
(d) Answer #2 (Beraisa): A man cannot sell his daughter to
relatives; R. Eliezer says, he can.
1. Both agree that a man can sell a widow (his
daughter) to a Kohen Gadol, or a divorcee or
Chalutzah to a regular Kohen.
2. Question: How did she become a widow (as a minor)?
i. Suggestion: If she engaged herself - she would
not be called a widow (her engagement had no
3. Answer: Rather, her father engaged her.
4. Question: But a man cannot sell his daughter after
5. Answer (Rav Amram): She became a widow through
Yi'ud, according to R. Yosi b'Rebbi Yehudah, who
says that the money paid for an Amah was not given
i. If Yi'ud makes Nisu'in - once she was married,
the father has no jurisdiction over her!
6. Question: Saying that it makes engagement is also
difficult - why does the Beraisa say that 'Both
agree that he can sell her'?
i. A man cannot sell his daughter after having
7. Answer: We must distinguish: a man cannot sell his
daughter after he engaged her, but he can sell her
after she engaged herself (through Yi'ud)!
i. We can likewise distinguish, and say that a
girl leaves her father's jurisdiction after he
married her off, but not after she married
herself off (through Yi'ud (if Yi'ud makes
8. Question: Rav Nachman bar Yitzchak holds that even
R. Yosi b'Rebbi Yehudah agrees that the money paid
for an Amah was given for engagement (if the master
will do Yi'ud) - how will he explain the Beraisa?
ii. Rejection: This reasoning is wrong! We can
distinguish when he engages her from when she
engages herself - but there cannot be a
distinction in Nisu'in (since she totally
leaves the father's jurisdiction).
9. Answer: The Beraisa is as R. Eliezer (Rashi; Tosfos
- R. Akiva), who says that a man cannot sell his
daughter twice, but he can sell her after engaging