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prepared by Rabbi Eliezer Chrysler
Kollel Iyun Hadaf, Jerusalem

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Kesuvos 92

KESUVOS 92 - dedicated by Rav Mordechai Rabin (London/Har Nof) for the Yahrzeit of his mother (28 Sivan).


(a) Reuven sold a field to Shimon without taking responsibility.
What did Shimon subsequently do?

(b) What did Rami bar Chama rule, when Reuven's creditor claimed the field from Reuven?

(c) On what grounds did Rava disagree with him?

2) What would Rava rule in a similar case to the previous one, but when the property that Reuven first sold to Shimon was property that he had inherited from his father Ya'akov, and the creditor who then claimed it from him was Ya'akov's creditor?


(a) Reuven sold Shimon a field for which he accepted responsibility. As for Shimon, he did not yet pay for the field, and Reuven converted the money owing into a loan. In the meantime, Reuven died.
What did Shimon do when Reuven's creditor claimed the field from him?

(b) What did Rami bar Chama permit Reuven's orphans to counter when Shimon came to claim compensation from them?

(c) What good advice did Rava have for Shimon?

(d) Shimon would able to claim back the land from them (despite the fact that they did not inherit it directly from their father), due to a statement made by Rav Nachman Amar Rabah bar Avuhah.
What did Rav Nachman Amar Rabah bar Avuhah say?

(a) If Reuven sold all his fields to Shimon one after the other, and Shimon then sold one of them to Levi, from whom will Reuven's creditor be permitted to claim?

(b) Then what did Rabah mean when he stated that he may claim from Levi too, should he be so inclined?

(c) Assuming that Reuven himself had not sold any fields, and that he possessed good, medium and poor quality fields, which of these would his creditor have the right to claim?

(d) That being so, under which circumstances will the creditor not be able to claim from Levi in our case?

(a) Imagine that Levi had purchased the same medium-quality field directly from Reuven, would Reuven's creditor have had the right to claim from him?

(b) Then why can he not do so in this case?

(c) Are there any circumstances where Levi would have the right to refuse to pay the creditor, even assuming that he had purchased medium quality fields from Shimon?

Answers to questions



(a) If Reuven sold Shimon a field, on what condition does Abaye authorize Reuven to intercede on Shimon's behalf, should his creditors subsequently claim it from him, according to the first Lashon?

(b) What sort of arguments might Reuven be able to present, that Shimon could not (see Tosfos DH 'Dina Hu')?

(c) Why might we have thought that he is not permitted to do so?

(d) According to the second Lashon, Abaye's statement extends even to a case when he sold him the field without responsibility.
Why can the creditor not then present the argument that we just cited?

Answers to questions

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