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prepared by Rabbi Eliezer Chrysler
Kollel Iyun Hadaf, Jerusalem

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Kesuvos 74


(a) Rav Acha bar Ya'akov Amar Rebbi Yochanan agrees with Rabah.
What statement did Rav Acha bar Ya'akov Amar Rebbi Yochanan make?

(b) The Beraisa validates a Chalitzah Muta'as.
How does Resh Lakish define a Chalitzah Muta'as?

(c) On what grounds does Rebbi Yochanan reject Resh Lakish's definition?

(d) So how does *he* define Chalitzah Muta'as?

(a) Why did Rav Acha Brei de'Rav Ika believe that Rebbi Yochanan's definition of Chalitzah Muta'as clashed with the statement of Rav Acha bar Ya'akov Amar Rebbi Yochanan?

(b) What was the relationship between the two Rav Acha's?

(c) Rav Acha bar Ya'akov dismissed his nephew's Kashya. He pointed out that the reason that Chalitzah Muta'as is valid is not because the Bi'ah dispenses with the condition, but because any condition by Chalitzah is null and void.
Why is that?

(d) How does he then explain the fact that a condition is valid in connection with Kidushei Bi'ah (as we learned above), despite the impossibility of performing Bi'ah through a Sheli'ach?

(a) What is the meaning of 'ha'Mekadesh be'Milveh, Einah Mekudeshes'?

(b) What does Ula Amar Rebbi Elazar say about 'Mekadesh be'Milveh u'Ba'al', ' ... al T'nai u'Ba'al', ' ... be'Pachos mi'Shaveh Perutah u'Ba'al'? What is his reason?

(c) Which of these rulings does Rav Yosef bar Aba Amar Rebbi Menachem Amar Rebbi Ami concede?

(d) Why does he argue in the other two cases?

4) Rav Kahana Amar Ula too, holds that 'ha'Mekadesh al T'nai u'Ba'al, Tz'richah Mimenu Get'. This does not conform however, with Rav Yehudah Amar Shmuel in the name of Rebbi Yishmael. What did Rebbi Yishmael Darshen from the Pasuk in Naso "ve'Hi Lo Nispasah (Asurah)"?

Answers to questions



(a) Why is it that, according to the Tana of the first Beraisa, if a woman went to a Chacham after her betrothal, and had her Neder nullified, her Kidushin would be valid, whereas if the same woman went to a doctor and had her blemish cured, it would not?

(b) What does the Tana of a second Beraisa say?

(c) Rabah resolves the apparent discrepancy by establishing the first Beraisa like Rebbi Meir, and the second one, like Rebbi Elazar.
What is the basis of this Machlokes?

(a) The Tana Kama in a Mishnah in Gitin forbids someone who divorced his wife because she was prone to make Nedarim or because of a bad name, to take her back.
Why is that?

(b) Rebbi Yehudah restricts the prohibition to a Neder which was known to the public.
What is the reason for the prohibition, according to him?

(a) We have already cited the opinions of Rebbi Meir and Rebbi Elazar in the above-mentioned Mishnah. Rebbi Meir connects the prohibition to a Neder that needs to be examined by a Chacham.
What does he mean by that?

(b) What is the reason for the prohibition according to him?

(c) What does Rebbi Elazar comment on Rebbi Meir's opinion?

Answers to questions

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