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prepared by Rabbi Eliezer Chrysler
Kollel Iyun Hadaf, Jerusalem

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Kesuvos 37


(a) Rebbi Yossi gives a Giyores who sees blood the same Din as a born Jewess.
What is the Din of a Jewess who sees blood?

(b) What does Rebbi Yehudah say about a Giyores who sees blood?

(c) Why does he not declare her Tamei retroactively, like Rebbi Yossi?

(d) Why are we not afraid that maybe the blood only moved after the conversion, and emerged immediately?

(a) According to Rebbi Yehudah, a Giyores needs to wait three months before marrying.
Why is that?

(b) What does Rebbi Yossi say?

(c) How did Rav Yosef reconcile this ruling of Rebbi Yehudah, with his previous one, where he holds that a Shevuyah retains her Kedushah?

(d) Rav Papa bar Shmuel stumped Rav Yosef however, when he asked him from another Beraisa, where Rebbi Yehudah issued the same ruling with regard to a Giyores, a Shevuyah and a Shifchah (who converted or was freed when they were over three).
How did Rav Papa bar Shmuel himself answer this Kashya in the name of Rav Sheishes?

3) Why is a Ketanah, who cannot become pregnant anyway, obligated to wait three months before marrying?


(a) Rav Sheishes established the Beraisa when they saw the girl being raped. What reason does Rabah then give for Rebbi Yossi exempting her from having to wait three months before marrying?

(b) This is fine in the case of a Giyores, who presumably knew that she would soon convert, and in the case of a captive, who hopes that she will soon be redeemed by her fellow-Jews, both of whom will consequently be prepared by carrying a cloth with them. It is also fine in the case of a Shifchah who overheard her master saying that he intended to set her free. Which case presents us with a problem?

(c) On what grounds do we reject the suggestion that in all unforeseen cases, Rebbi Yossi does indeed concede that the woman is obligated to wait three months?

(d) Abaye finally explains that Rebbi Yossi permits a woman who has been raped or seduced to marry immediately - because she turns over after the Bi'ah to ensure that she does not become pregnant.
On what grounds does Rebbi Yehudah disagree?

(a) Our Mishnah cites the Pasuk "ve'Im Lo Yihyeh Ason, Anosh Ye'anesh" as the source for 'Kol ha'Mischayev be'Nafsho, Ein Meshalem Mamon'. How do we reconcile this with the source cited in other places in Shas "Kedei Rish'aso", from which Chazal derive 'Mishum Rish'ah Achas Ata Mechayvo ... '?

(b) Why would we not know ...

  1. ... Malkos and Mamon from Misah and Mamon?
  2. ... Misah and Mamon from Malkos and Mamon?
(c) According to Rebbi Meir, who holds 'Lokeh u'Meshalem', why do we need the two Pesukim?

(d) Why would we not know ...

  1. ... Misah and Malkos from Misah and Mamon?
  2. ... Misah and Mamon from Misah and Malkos?
Answers to questions



(a) Bearing in mind that we already know that a person cannot receive any two punishments, from the above two Pesukim, why do we need the Pasuk in Masei ...
  1. ... "ve'Lo Sikchu Kofer le'Nefesh Rotzei'ach"? What would we otherwise have thought?
  2. ... " Lo Sikchu Kofer La'nus el Ir Miklato"?
(b) Why do we need two Pesukim? Why could we not have learned the prohibition ...
  1. ... by Shogeg from that of Meizid?
  2. ... by Meizid from that of Shogeg?
(a) Why do we need the Pasuk there "ve'la'Aretz Lo Yechupar le'Dam Asher Shupach Bah ki-im be'Dam Shofcho"?

(b) So when *does* the Eglah Arufah atone?

(c) And why do we need the Pasuk in Shoftim (in connection with Eglah Arufah) "ve'Atah Teva'er Dam ha'Naki mi'Kirbecha"? In which respect is the Torah comparing all those who are killed by the sword to Eglah Arufah?

(d) Then why are they not killed with a hatchet at the back of the neck?

(a) What does the Tana Kama of the Beraisa learn from the Pasuk in Bechukosai ...
  1. ... "Kol Cherem Asher Yochram (min ha'Adam) Lo Yipadeh"?
  2. ... " ... min ha'Adam"?
(b) We ask what Rebbi Chananya ben Akavya will learn from this Pasuk. Why do we ask that? What does Rebbi Chananya ben Akavya say that negates the previous D'rashah?

(c) If not for their interpretation of the Pasuk, the Rabbanan would agree that, in spite of the fact that he is about to be put to death, a person still has an Erech.
Why is that?

(a) So we establish Rebbi Chananya ben Akavya's interpretation like Rebbi Yishmael B'no shel Rebbi Yochanan ben Berokah, who bases his interpretation of the Pasuk " ... Cherem min ha'Adam Lo Yipadeh" on the Pasuk in Mishpatim "Im Kofer Yushas Alav".
What does that Pasuk come to teach us?

(b) What does Rebbi Yishmael subsequently learn from the Pasuk " ... Cherem min ha'Adam Lo Yipadeh"?

(c) And what does he learn from *"Kol* Cherem ... "?

(d) 'Misos Chamuros she'Lo Nitnah Shigegasan le'Kaparah' refers to someone who wounds his father or who kidnaps.
What does this mean? Why is there no Kaparah in the case of Shogeg?

Answers to questions

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