REVIEW QUESTIONS ON GEMARA AND RASHI
prepared by Rabbi Eliezer Chrysler
Kollel Iyun Hadaf, Jerusalem
Previous daf Kesuvos 5
(a) Rebbi Zeira initially explains that the Tana forbids Bi'ah (marriage) on
Motza'ei Shabbos because of Cheshbonos.
What does this mean? From where do
we learn this prohibition?
(b) What is the problem with Rebbi Zeira's explanation?
(c) What do the following have in common: Mitzvah calculations; undertaking
to give Tzedakah; looking into communal needs; Piku'ach Nefesh?
(d) Is one also permitted on Shabbos ...
- ... to arrange a Shiduch for one's son or daughter?
- ... to arrange with a Rebbe to teach one's son Torah?
- ... to employ a tutor to teach him a trade?
(a) What reason then, did Rebbi Zeira really give for the prohibition of
marrying on Motza'ei Shabbos?
(b) Nevertheless, we are not afraid that, when *Yom Kipur* falls on Monday,
someone may Shecht a bird on Shabbos for Erev Yom Kipur.
What would we do
if we were?
(c) One reason for this distinction is because, whereas for a wedding, one
needs to prepare a feast for all the guests, on Yom Kipur, people are only
preparing for their own immediate family.
What is the second answer?
(d) Originally, we gave the reason for the prohibition of marrying
(performing Bi'ah) on Friday night, as making a wound.
What reason do we
(a) We learned in our Mishnah that a Besulah goes under the Chupah on
Wednesday. The B'nei Yeshivah asked whether they consummated the marriage
straightway or only after nightfall.
Why might they be obligated to wait
(b) We resolve the She'eilah from Bar Kapara in a Beraisa.
What does he
say about ...
(c) How do we resolve our She'eilah from there?
- ... a Besulah who marries on Wednesday?
- ... an Almanah who marries on Thursday?
(a) One of the reasons that an Almanah performs Bi'ah on Thursday (in spite
of the B'rachah of the fish) is because the B'rachah that was given to Adam
is more worthwhile.
What is the other reason?
(b) One of the differences between the two reasons is manifest in the case
of a man who is out of work (to whom 'Shakdu' is not applicable).
the other difference?
(a) What does bar Kapara extrapolate from the two Pesukim "af Yadi Yasdah
Aretz vi'Yemini Tafchah Shamayim" (Yeshayah) and "Mikdash, Hashem Kon'nu
Answers to questions
(b) How will bar Kapara then explain the Pasuk in Tehilim ...
(c) And how will he explain the Pasuk there "u'Ma'aseh *Yadav* Magid
ha'Raki'a" (in the plural)? What is this Pasuk then referring to?
- ... "ve'Yabeshes *Yadav* Yatzaru" (in the plural)?
- ... "Yadav *Yatzaru*" (in the plural)?
(d) What was the name of the Bavli who asked him these Kashyos?
(a) How does bar Kapara explain the Pasuk in Ki Seitzei "ve'Yaseid Tihyeh
Lecha al Azeinecha"?
(b) That is also how Rebbi Elazar explained the pointy shape of the fingers.
How did we know, when he asked why the fingers are like pegs, that he did he
not mean to ask why they are separated into five separate entities and are
not joined together?
(c) The five fingers are called Zeres, K'mitzah, Amah, Etzba and Godel. What
purpose did the Zeres and the K'mitzah serve?
(d) The Amah was to measure the Amos of the building and of the holy
vessels, and the Etzba for sprinkling the blood of the Chatas.
Hashem create the Godel for?
(a) How did Tana de'Bei Rebbi Yishmael explain why of the entire ear, only
the lobe is soft?
(b) Why should a person be careful not to listen to idle chatter?
(a) The B'nei Yeshivah asked whether it is permitted to make the first Bi'ah
with a Besulah on Shabbos.
But did we not learn a Beraisa above which
(b) In the first Lashon of the She'eilah, if the blood of Besulim is
considered intrinsically joined to the body, then it is certainly forbidden,
because extracting it will entail causing a wound.
Why might it be
forbidden even if we assume the blood to be merely deposited in the body?
(c) And why might it still be forbidden, even if he really only intends to
extract the blood?
(d) According to Rebbi Shimon, we take for granted that, if it is the blood
he wants, it will be permitted.
Why is it not a case of 'P'sik Reisha'
(which even Rebbi Shimon concedes, is forbidden)?
(a) Why might the first Bi'ah with a Besulah be permitted even according to
Rebbi Yehudah who holds that 'Davar she'Ein Miskaven, Asur'?
(b) Why should the Bi'ah of a Besulah be considered Mekalkel?
(c) Why is there no shadow of doubt that if it is Mekalkel, the Bi'ah will
be permitted? Does nobody hold that Mekalkel is Chayav?
(a) In the second Lashon, we assume that the blood of a Besulah is
Answers to questions
Why might the Bi'ah then be permitted?
(b) In which case would the Bi'ah be forbidden according to Rebbi Shimon and
permitted according to Rebbi Yehudah?
(c) In Bei Rav, they cited Rav as permitting the first Bi'ah, and Shmuel as
What did they say in Neherda'a?
(d) What Si'man did Rav Nachman bar Yitzchak give to remember where they