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prepared by Rabbi Eliezer Chrysler
Kollel Iyun Hadaf, Jerusalem

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Gitin 82

GITIN 82 - Dedicated by Seth and Sheila Jutan of Atlanta, Georgia, in memory of Sheila's grandfather, Mr. Bernie Slotin (Dov Ber ben Moshe Mordechai z'l), who passed away on Chol ha'Moed Pesach (18 Nisan 5759 - April 4, 1999).


(a) How does Abaye prove from the current Beraisa ...
  1. ... that the relative is permitted to sign anywhere on the Sh'tar (at the beginning, in the middle or at the end)?
  2. ... that one is permitted to substantiate a Get Mekushar from any three of the witnesses, even if they did not sign consecutively?
(b) What did Rebbi Ami (or Rebbi Yanai) instruct the Sofer to do when a Get Kere'ach came before him?
***** Hadran Alach ha'Zorek *****

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(a) Rebbi Eliezer validates the divorce in a case where the husband says to his wife 'You are permitted to everyone except so-and-so'.
What do the Chachamim say?

(b) When does he say this?

(c) What must he do if he did say it?

(d) What will be the Din if he actually wrote this wording in the Get?

(a) We ask whether 'Ela li'P'loni' (by which Rebbi Eliezer and the Rabbanan argue) is a Lashon of 'Chutz' or of 'al-M'nas'. If it is a Lashon of ...
  1. ... 'Chutz', then what will the Rabbanan hold by 'al-M'nas'?
  2. ... 'al-M'nas', what will Rebbi Eliezer hold by 'Chutz'?
(b) The Torah writes in Metzora "ve'Nasati Nega Tzora'as be'Veis Eretz Achuzaschem".
What do we ...
  1. ... learn from there?
  2. ... infer from there?
(c) What does Ravina prove from here vis-a-vis the Mishnah in Nega'im 'Kol ha'Batim Mitam'in bi'Nega'im Ela shel Ovdei Kochavim' (and vis-a-vis our current She'ailah)?
(a) Which Tana cannot be the author of our Mishnah?

(b) In connection with the Machlokes between Rebbi Eliezer and the Chachamim, what does Rebbi Yossi b'Rebbi Yehudah say about ...

  1. ... 'Harei At Muteres le'Chol Adam Chutz mi'P'loni'?
  2. ... 'Harei At Muteres le'Chol Adam al'M'nas she'Lo Tinas'i li'P'loni'?
(c) According to ...
  1. ... Rebbi Yossi b'Rebbi Yehudah, on what grounds do the Chachamim differentiate between this latter case, and any other T'nai regarding Gitin, which is effective?
  2. ... the Tana of our Mishnah, how does Rebbi Eliezer extrapolate his leniency from the Pasuk in Ki Seitei "ve'Yatz'ah ve'Haysah le'Ish Acher"?
(d) How do the Chachamim explain this Pasuk?
Answers to questions



(a) How does Rebbi Yochanan extrapolate from the Pasuk in Emor "ve'Ishah Gerushah me'Iyshah Lo Yikachu" what Rebbi Yanai extrapolated from "ve'Yatz'ah ve'Haysah le'Ish Acher"?

(b) In view of this Pasuk, on what grounds do the Rabbanan decline to learn like Rebbi Eliezer?

(a) Rebbi Aba ask whether we can extend the current Din of Gerushin to Kidushin.
What is the case?

(b) He suggests that even Rebbi Eliezer may well restrict his lenient ruling here to Get, because of the Pesukim that we quoted, whereas there are no Pesukim by Kidushin.
Why on the other hand, might he be lenient by Kidushin, too?

(c) The Rabbanan too, might extend their stringent ruling to Kidushin because of the same Hekesh.
Why, on the other hand, might they be more lenient by Kidushin than by Get?

(d) What is Rebbi Aba's conclusion both according to the Rebbi Eliezer and according to the Chachamim?

(a) Assuming that we hold like Rebbi Aba, if Reuven betrothed a woman 'Chutz mi'Shimon' (his brother), and Shimon betrothed her 'Chutz me'Reuven', why might we have thought that Levi their brother cannot perform Yibum? (b) Abaye however, permits him to do so.
Why is that?

(c) How will we find a case of 'Eishes Sh'nei Meisim' according to Rebbi Aba?

(a) Abaye asks what the Din will be, if someone divorced his wife 'le'Chol Adam Chutz me'Reuven and Shimon' and then, before handing her the Get he said 'li'Reuven ve'Shimon'.
What is his She'eilah?

(b) Based on the first side of the She'eilah, we ask what the Din will be if he later mentioned Reuven but not Shimon. If he meant to include Shimon as well, then why did he not mention him?

(c) If he meant specifically Reuven and not Shimon, we ask what the Din will then be if he only mentioned Shimon.
What makes us think that 'Shimon' might be better than 'Reuven' in this regard?

(a) Assuming that Shimon, like Reuven, is specific, Rav Ashi thinks that perhaps 'Af Shimon' is better than just 'Shimon', because he means to say not only Reuven, but Shimon too.
Why might this not be the case? Why might 'Af Shimon' be no different than 'Shimon'?

(b) What do we conclude regarding Rav Ashi's She'eilah?

Answers to questions

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