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prepared by Rabbi Eliezer Chrysler
Kollel Iyun Hadaf, Jerusalem

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Gitin 24

GITIN 24 & 25 - have been anonymously dedicated by a very special Marbitz Torah and student of the Daf from Ramat Beit Shemesh, Israel.


(a) Rav Ashi just substantiated Abaye's opinion from the Seifa of our Mishnah - which concludes 'u'Vil'vad she'Hi Tzerichah Lomar be'Fanai Nichtav ... ', proving that the Tana there too, is referring to Chutz la'Aretz.
How does Rav Yosef (who himself established that the previous Mishnah of Suma [referred to as 'the Reisha'] refers to Chutz la'Aretz) counter Abaye's proof? How could 'Af ha'Nashim she'Einan Ne'emanos Lomar Meis Ba'alah ... ' be referring to Eretz Yisrael?

(b) How does

  1. ... he extrapolate this from the words ' ... Mah Bein Get le'Misah, *she'ha'K'sav Mochi'ach'*?
  2. ... Abaye explain 'she'ha'K'sav Mochi'ach'?
(a) The Tana permits a woman to bring her own Get from overseas.
Why is she not divorced the moment she receives it?

(b) On what grounds do we refute the suggestion ...

  1. ... of Rav Huna, that her husband stipulated that she would only become divorced when she reached such-and-such a Beis-Din?
  2. ... of Rav Achah Brei de'Rav Ika, that the Tana speaks when her husband stipulated that she was to place the Get on the round there, and to become divorced when she picked it up? What did Rava say about such a case?
(c) So how do we finally establish our Mishnah?
(a) We attempt to refute the final answer too, on the grounds that 've'Ha Lo Chazrah Shelichus Eitzel ha'Ba'al'?
What does this mean?

(b) One of the reasons that a woman is not permitted to accept her Get from her husband's Sheli'ach is because it is demeaning to her husband's dignity not to accept the Get directly from his Sheli'ach.
What do others say?

(c) Why would the current problem not exist according to the first reason?

(d) According to the second reason, we answer that the Tana speaks when her husband instructed her that, upon arrival at her destination, she is to appoint another Sheli'ach le'Holachah and accept the Get from him, or even to appoint the Beis-Din as Sheluchim.
Can a Sheli'ach le'Holachah appoint a second Sheli'ach le'Holachah?

***** Hadran Alach 'ha'Meivi Get (Basra)' *****

***** Perek Kol ha'Get *****


(a) What example does the Tana give of ...
  1. ... a Get that is written she'Lo Lish'mah?
  2. ... a Get that is actually written Lish'mah and yet it is Pasul?
  3. ... a Get that is even written specifically on behalf of the man's wife, yet it is still Pasul?
(b) What case does the Tana then present where the Get is even written on behalf of the woman who eventually receives it, yet it is still Pasul?

(c) On what grounds is this Get not valid?

Answers to questions



(a) If the second case in our Mishnah speaks when the man changed his mind about divorcing his wife, then how does the first case (when he heard the Sofer announcing the details that tallied with his own) speak?

(b) How does Rav Ashi prove this from the Lashon 'Sofrin Makrin'?

(a) The Tana writes 'Yeser mi'Kein' by each subsequent case, because it is indeed a bigger Chidush than the previous one.
What would we have thought, had the Torah just written ...
  1. ... "ve'Nasan Sefer Kerisus be'Yadah" (and omitted "ve'Kasav")?
  2. ... "ve'Kasav Sefer Kerisus ve'Nasan be'Yadah" (and not "ve'Kasav *Lah*")?
(b) What do we then learn from "Lah"?
(a) We learned in out Mishnah, that if a man with two wives who have the same name writes a Get for one of them, he may not divorce the other one. This implies that he may divorce the wife for whom the Get was written. Why might we have thought otherwise?

(b) What Halachah (concerning two Yosef ben Shimon who reside in the same town) does Rava extrapolate from this inference?

(c) Abaye counters Rava's proof however, from the Reisha of our Mishnah 'Sh'mi ke'Shimcha, Pasul Legaresh Bo', refuting the very same inference that Rava made from the Seifa, on the basis of the Mishnah in Bava Basra. What does the Tana there say about a third person who produces a Sh'tar against one of the two Yosef ben Shimons (or one Yosef ben Shimon against the other)?

(d) How does Abaye therefore establish both Mishnahs, negating his own Kashya and Rava's proof with one stroke?

(a) According to Rav, despite the fact that all the Gitin in our Mishnah (except for one) are Pasul, they nevertheless disqualify the woman from marrying a Kohen or from remaining with her husband, in the event that he is a Kohen.
Why is that?

(b) Which case is the exception?

(c) What is the source of 'Rei'ach ha'Get'?

(d) Shmuel, who is even more stringent than Rav, follows his own ruling in Yevamos.
What does he say ...

1. ... here?
2. ... there with regard to ...
a. ... a Get Pasul?
b. ... Chalitzah Pesulah? What does he learn from " ... Asher Lo Yivneh es Beis Achiv"?
(a) Rebbi Elazar is quoted in Eretz Yisrael differently than Shmuel, with regard to Chalitzah Pesulah.
What basic distinction does he make between 'Chaltzah bi'S'mol u'va'Laylah' on the one hand, and 'Katan (she'Chalatz) ve'Anpilya' on the other? What is 'Anpilya'?

(b) Ze'iri and Rav Asi maintain that all the cases in our Mishnah do not invalidate the woman from marrying a Kohen except for the last one.
Why is that?

(c) The last opinion is that of Rebbi Yochanan.
What does he say?

Answers to questions

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