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prepared by Rabbi Eliezer Chrysler
Kollel Iyun Hadaf, Jerusalem

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Eruvin 103


(a) Which Melachah does cutting off the wart of an animal constitute?

(b) It is permitted for a Kohen to cut off the wart of an animal by hand in the Mikdash, but not using a vessel.
Why is that?

(c) Why is it necessary to remove warts in the Mikdash at all?

(a) The Mishnah in Pesachim forbids cutting off a wart on Shabbos - even in the Beis Hamikdash. Some establish both Mishnahs by a wet wart (which is a blemish).
How do they reconcile the two Mishnahs?

(b) Why do they not want to establish the leniency in our Mishnah by a dry *wart*, and to ascribe the leniency to the fact that a dry wart is not really a blemish?

(a) Others establish both Mishnahs with regard to the removal of the wart by hand.
How do they then reconcile the two Mishnahs?

(b) Why do they not want to ascribe the stringency in the Mishnah in Pesachim to the fact that it is being removed with an instrument?

(c) How do the other Amora'im (who *do* use this answer) account for the fact that our Mishnah has already stated it?

(d) The counter-argument is that the Mishnah *there* needs to tell us about the Machlokes Rebbi Eliezer and the Rabbanan.
How do those who establish the Mishnah in Pesachim by the removal of a *wet* wart using an instrument, counter the argument that specifically establishes it by a case of an Isur de'Rabbanan, because the case must be similar to carrying the animal and bringing it from outside the Techum, both of which are also included in the Mishnah there, and both of which are only de'Rabbanan?

(a) The Gemara however, rejects this explanation on the basis of Rebbi Eliezer's 'Kal va'Chomer' in Pesachim.
What statement does Rebbi Eliezer make which disqualifies it?

(b) Rav Yosef therefore changes the initial explanation completely. Both Mishnahs speak about removing a wet boil with the hand, he says, and the Tana in Pesachim is more strict by the Korban Pesach than by other Korbanos.
Why is that?

(c) Rav Safra asked Abaye from the Mishnah on 97b, which permits someone whose Sefer rolled out of his hand from the threshold into the street to roll it back, which seems to suggest that we do *not* apply a Shevus de'Mikdash elsewhere.
Why is that called a 'Shevus de'Mikdash'?

(d) What did Abaye answer?

(a) How does Rav Yosef account for the Mishnah in Shabbos, which permits lowering the Korban Pesach into the oven, close to sunset, ignoring the normal time-to-roast-before-Shabbos that is required by roasting meat. Is this not a case of permitting a Shevus de'Mikdash outside the Mikdash?

(b) Abaye was silent when the question was asked. Why did he not give the answer that Rav Yosef gave?

(c) Rava reconciles the two Mishnahs by establishing them in the same way as Rav Yosef (in 4b). But according to him, the Tana in Pesachim forbids removing the wart even by hand, since it could have been done before Shabbos.
Who then, is the author of our Mishnah who permits it?

(d) Then why does he forbid using an instrument?

Answers to questions



(a) The Beraisa permits a Kohen to bite off his fellow KohenÚs wart.
How does Rava attempt to prove his point from here? Why does he think that the author of this Beraisa cannot be the Rabbanan?

(b) The Gemara rejects this, establishing the Beraisa even like the Chachamim.
Why then, must his fellow Kohen perform the task and not himself?

(c) On what grounds is this explanation in turn, refuted (and Rava vindicated)? Why is it not possible to establish the Beraisa like the Rabbanan?

(d) And why will it be in order to establish it like Rebbi Eliezer? Why must his fellow Kohen remove the wart with his hands?

(a) Most cures are forbidden mi'de'Rabbanan on Shabbos.
Then why is a Kohen serving in the Beis Hamikdash permitted to bind a reed around a wound on his finger?

(b) If however, his intention is to draw out blood, then it is forbidden - and for two possible reasons.
What are they?

(a) Why might the concession for a Kohen to bind a reed around his finger not extend to a small belt?

(b) Yet Rebbi Yochanan permits a belt, too.

(c) Why is even the belt not forbidden on the grounds that is a Chatzitzah (two answers)?

(a) Rava quoting Rav Chisda disagrees with Rebbi Yochanan. What does he say with regard to ...
  1. ... b'Makom Begadim?
  2. ... she'Lo b'Makom Begadim?
(b) Does this mean that he also argues with Rav Yehudah Brei de'Rebbi Chiya, who forbids even a small belt (which is less than three Tefachim by three Tefachim)?

(c) According to the second Lashon, Rebbi Yochanan too, makes a distinction by a Chatzitzah of less than three by three Tefachim, between a place on the body which is normally clothed and one which is not (exactly like Rava).
According to Rebbi Yochanan (and Rava), why does the Tana of our Mishnah mention the reed? Why did he not tell us that even a small belt is permitted, and it is obvious that a reed belt is, too?

Answers to questions
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