(Permission is granted to print and redistribute this material
as long as this header and the footer at the end are included.)


prepared by Rabbi Eliezer Chrysler
Kollel Iyun Hadaf, Jerusalem

Previous daf

Bava Metzia 111

BAVA METZIA 111 (29 Adar) - L'iluy Nishmas ha'Gaon Rav Yosef Pinchas ben Rav Noach ha'Levy Levinson (Yahrzeit: 29 Adar Alef), by his son.


(a) Why were the Ba'alei-Batim of Sura not subject to the La'av of "Lo Salin"?

(b) Would it make any difference if they had money at the time of the transaction?

(c) Were they subject to the La'av of 'bal Tashheh'?

(a) According to Rav, a laborer who works half the day, may claim until nightfall, and one who works half the night, may claim half the night. What does Shmuel say? Why is that?

(b) Why then, is the half-day laborer not permitted to claim the following night?

(c) How will Rav explain our Mishnah 'S'chir Sha'os Govah Kol ha'Laylah ve'Chol ha'Yom'?

(d) We also learned there that if the contract of a laborer who is hired for a week or a month ... , terminates during the night, then he has the entire night and the day in which to claim. What does Rav say to that?

(e) Rav's opinion conforms with that of Rebbi Yehudah in a Beraisa.
Who is then the author of our Mishnah?

(a) The Torah (in Ki Seitzei) mentions only one Asei in connection with paying workers "be'Yomo Titen Secharo". How many La'avin does the Pasuk list?

(b) Why can they all not apply in conection with one laborer simultaneously?

(c) Why do we interpret "Lo Sigzol" (in Kedoshim) to refer to this set of La'avin and not literally, to the prohibition of stealing?

(a) Rav Chisda interprets 'Oshek' as 'Lech va'Shov ... ', and 'Gezel' as 'Yesh Lecha be'Yadi, ve'Eini Nosen Lach'. On what basis does Rav Sheishes reject Rav Chisda's interpretation of Oshek, though he agrees with his interpretation of Gezel?

(b) How does *he* therefore interpret 'Oshek'?

(c) On what basis does Abaye reject the above interpretation of 'Gezel'?

(d) Abaye therefore interprets 'Oshek' as 'Lo Secharticha Me'olam'.
How does he interpret 'Gezel'?

(a) Abaye asks on Rav Sheishes' interpretation of 'Gezel', the same Kashya as he asked on Rav Chisda's interpretation of 'Oshek' (as we already explained).
How does Rav Sheishes therefore establish the Beraisa, for Korban Shevu'ah to be applicable?

(b) In that case, why can we not answer the Kashya on Rav Chisda in the same way?

(c) Rava disagrees.
How does *he* interpret the Torah's use of the two Leshonos, "Oshek" and "Gezel"?

(a) What does the Tana of our Mishnah say about 'S'char Adam, S'char Beheimah and S'char Keilim'? What do they have in common?

(b) What condition is required before the hirer can transgress "Lo Salin" and "be'Yomo Titen S'charo"?

(c) What does the Tana say about 'Himchehu Eitzel Chenvani O Eitzel Shulchani'?

(d) Why must we say by 'Himchehu Eitzel Chenvani', that the laborer needed fruit from him anyway?

Answers to questions



(a) The Tana Kama of the Beraisa Darshens the Pasuk Ki Seitzei "Lo S'ashok ... *me'Achecha*" to preclude 'Acherim'.
To whom does 'Acherim' refer?

(b) What does he include from ...

  1. ... "Gercha"?
  2. ... "bi'She'arecha"?
  3. ... "be'Artzecha"?
(c) What does this group all have in common, according to this Tana?

(d) Why can this Tana not be the author of our Mishnah?

(a) Rebbi Yossi b'Rebbi Yehudah in the Beraisa agrees with our Mishnah that a Ger Toshav is not subject to "Lo Salin". He also argues with the Tana Kama in respect of Beheimah ve'Keilim. What prompts him to say that they are only subject to "Lo Sa'ashok S'char Sachir"?

(b) If the author of our Mishnah is neither the Tana Kama nor Rebbi Yossi b'Rebbi Yehudah, then who is?

(c) Tana de'Bei Rebbi Yishmael says that a Ger Toshav is subject to "be'Yomo Titen Secharo". Does this come to preclude "Lo Sa'ashok Sachir"?

(d) And he adds that he is not subject to "Lo Salin". As a matter of fact, he is also not subject either to "Lo Sa'ashok es Re'acha" or to "Lo Sigzol" (since they are written in Kedoshim). Seeing as neither of the Pesukim quoted by Tana de'Bei Rebbi Yishmael is exclusive, why does he then specifically mention "be'Yomo Titen Secharo" (for Chiyuv) and "Lo Salin" (for P'tur)?

(a) From where does the Tana Kama learn to include a Ger Tzedek and a Ger Toshav, as well as S'char Beheimah ve'Keilim, in the La'avin in Kedoshim?

(b) Even if Rebbi Yossi b'Rebbi Yehudah does not hold of "Sachir" "Sachir" to include S'char Beheimah ve'Keilim in the La'avin in Kedoshim, why does he not at least include them in the Asei of "be'Yomo Titen Secharo" (in Ki Seitzei)? What does the Torah write there to preclude them?

(a) The Tana Kama learns from the Pasuk in Ki Seitzei "Ki Ani Hu" that one gives a poor man precedence should the hirer not have enough money to pay both.
From where does Rebbi Yossi b'Rebbi Yehudah learn that?

(b) The Tana Kama requires both Pesukim, one to give a poor man precedence over a rich one, and the other, to give him precedence over an Evyon. What is an Evyon?

(c) Why does an Ani take precedence over an Evyon?

(d) Having taught us that a poor man takes precedence over ...

  1. ... an Evyon, why do we need another Pasuk to teach us that he also takes precedence over a rich one" Why might we have thought otherwise?
  2. ... a rich man, why do we need another Pasuk to teach us that he also takes precedence over an Evyon?
(a) The Tana of our Mishnah precludes a Ger Toshav from the La'avin in Kedoshim, but includes Beheimah ve'Keilim.
If he does not hold of 'Sachir" Sachir", from where does he include the latter? What does he learn from ...
  1. ... "Lo Salin Pe'ulas Sachir Itcha ad Boker"?
  2. ... "Lo Sa'ashok es Re'acha"?
(b) On what grounds do we opt to include Beheimah ve'Keilim but to preclude a Ger Toshav (and not vice-versa [i.e. "Re'acha", 've'Lo Beheimah ve'Keilim'])?

(c) The Tana Kama of the Beraisa, who includes a Ger Toshav in all the La'avin, learns from "Re'acha" to preclude a Nochri (like we learned in a Beraisa). But did he not already learn that from "me'Achecha"? (d) Having taught us that ...

  1. ... Gezel Nochri is permitted, why do we need a second Pasuk to permit Oshek?
  2. ... Oshek of a Nochri is permitted, why do we need a second Pasuk to permit Gezel?
(a) Rebbi Yossi b'Rebbi Yehudah, who precludes Beheimah ve'Keilim from the La'avin in Kedoshim, learns from "Lo Salin ... *Itcha*" like Rev Asi. What does Rav Asi say with regard to someone who hires a laborer to pick one cluster of grapes? What does that symbolize?

(b) The Tana Kama learns this from the Pasuk in Ki Seitzei "ve'Eilav Hu Nosei es Nafsho".
What does Rebbi Yossi b'Rebbi Yehudah learn from there?

Answers to questions

Next daf


For further information on
subscriptions, archives and sponsorships,
contact Kollel Iyun Hadaf,