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prepared by Rabbi Eliezer Chrysler
Kollel Iyun Hadaf, Jerusalem

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Berachos 52

1) We have learnt in a Beraisa that on Motzei Shabbos, the order of the Berachos is 'Yayin, Ner, Besamim and Havdalah'.

(a) Why does this appear to be contradict what Beis Shamai say in our Mishnah?

(b) How do we know that the author of that Beraisa is Beis Shamai, and not Beis Hillel (in which case, there would be no Kashya)?

(c) But how do we know that the author of the Beraisa is not Rebbi Meir, in whose opinion Beis Hillel also give precedence to Ner over Besamim?

(d) How does the Gemara ultimately resolve the discrepancy between the Beraisa and our Mishnah?

2) Beis Shamai also say later in the Mishnah that, if there is only one cup of wine, one recites a Berachah over the wine and then Birchas ha'Mazon.
(a) What does the Gemara presume this to mean, and what problem does this create with our interpretation of the above Beraisa?
The Gemara first tries to answer that he recites the Berachah but does not drink the wine until after Bensching (it is not clear why he recites the Berachah at all) and concludes that he drinks a bit of wine *before* Bensching, and the bulk *after* Bensching.
(b) Which two problems does this present?

(c) How does the Gemara deal with them?

(d) What do we do with the Beraisa, which specifically writes that, according to Beis Shamai, one drinks the entire Kos before Bensching?

3) According to Beis Shamai, one washes one's hands before pouring the wine, because otherwise, his hands will render the wine that spills onto the back of the cup Tamei, which, in turn, will make the cup Tamei.
According to Beis Hillel, one first pours the wine, because otherwise, the water which remains on his hands after washing, may become Tamei through the cup (which is Tamei), and be Metamei his hands.
(a) According to Beis Shamai, why do we need the water? Even without it, his Tamei hands will render the cup Tamei?

(b) And why do we need to come on to the water according to Beis Hillel. Why do we not say simply, 'because the cup will be Metamei his hands directly'?

(c) If the cup is Tamei, why is it not Metamei the wine inside it?

(d) What is the basis of their Machlokes?

Answers to questions



(a) Why did the Rabbanan decree Tum'ah on the outside of a cup and not on the inside (why is the entire vessel not Tamei)?

(b) What argument do Beis Hillel present in favor of pouring the wine first - even conceding that it is forbidden to use a vessel, whose back only is Tamei.

5) Beis Shamai hold that it is preferable to place the cloth for wiping one's hands on the table, rather than on the cushion on which one is reclining; whereas according to Beis Hillel, it is better to place it on the cushion.
(a) If Beis Shamai are concerned that the water on the wet cushion will be Metamei the cloth, why are they not equally concerned about the table being Metamei the water on the cloth?

(b) Why are Beis Hillel not concerned that the table will render the food Tamei?

(c) Why do Beis Shamai forbid eating at a table which is a Sheini?

(d) Why are Beis Hillel not concerned about that?

6) Why are Beis Hillel more concerned that the food might become Tamei via the table, than that the hands might become Tamei through the cushion?

7) According to Beis Shamai, one first sweeps and then washes one's hands.

(a) Why?

(b) Why are Beis Hillel not concerned about that?

(c) What is the basis of their Machlokes?

(d) What Halachah do we learn from Beis Hillel's opinion?

8) According to Beis Shamai in our Mishnah, the order of priorities is 'Ner, Mazon, Besamim, Havdalah'.
(a) What is the order of priorities according to Beis Hillel?
This is the opinion of Rebbi Meir. According to Rebbi Yehudah, Beis Shamai and Beis Hillel agree that Mazon comes first, and Havdalah last.
(b) What is the Machlokes according to him?

(c) Like whom is the Halachah?

9) According to Beis Shamai, the text of Birchas ha'Ner is 'she'Bara Me'or ha'Eish'; according to Beis Hillel 'Borei Me'orei ha'Eish'.

"Yotzer Or u'Vorei Choshech" (Amos); "Yotzer Harim u'Vorei Ruach" (Yeshayah); "Borei ha'Shamayim ve'Noteihem" (Yeshayah).

(a) How do these Pesukim refute the Gemara's original contention about Beis Shamai and Beis Hillel's Machlokes regarding '*Borei* Me'orei ha'Eish'?

(b) What is the conclusion in this matter?

(c) What is the basis of the Machlokes between Beis Shamai and Beis Hillel whether one says 'Me'or ha'Eish' or 'Me'orei ha'Eish'?

10) Why may one not use ...
(a) ... the candle of a non-Jew or

(b) ... the Besamim of a non-Jew

for Havdalah?
(c) How does this latter Halachah correlate with the Seifa of the Mishnah, which states 'Ein Mevorchin ... ve'Lo al Besamim shel Avodah Zarah', implying that the Reisha is *not* speaking about Avodah Zarah?
(a) What is a 'Ner she'Lo Shavas'?
May one use a lamp ...
(b) ... that burnt through the whole Shabbos?

(c) ... that was lit for someone who was dangerously ill?

Answers to questions

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