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prepared by Rabbi Eliezer Chrysler
Kollel Iyun Hadaf, Jerusalem

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Beitzah 19


(a) The Tana Kama forbids one to Tovel a Tamei vessel during Bein- Hashemashos of Erev Yom-Tov.

(b) Rebbi Shimon Shezuri is even more strict. What does *he* say?

(c) What problem do we have with the Tana Kama's opinion?

(d) The Talmidim in the Beis Hamedrash explained that Rebbi Shimon Shezuri and the Tana Kama are arguing in the case when they see the owner running to Tovel as Bein-Hashemashos approaches.
How will that explain the Machlokes?

(a) Rava maintains that, if the owner is running as Beis Hashemashos approaches, even Rebbi Shimon Shezuri will agree that the owner knows about the Din of Ha'arev-Shemesh, and that their dispute is confined to a case when he comes to ask a She'eilah.
What She'eilah does he come to ask?

(b) How will that explain their Machlokes?

(c) Our Mishnah permits Toveling on Yom-Tov 'mi'Gav le'Gav u'me'Chaburah la'Chaburah'.

What is the meaning of ...

  1. ... 'mi'Gav le'Gav'?
  2. ... 'me'Chaburah le'Chaburah'?
(a) Beis Shamai permit Shelamim to be brought on Yom-Tov without making Semichah on them, but they forbid Olos
. On what grounds do they forbid ...
  1. ... Semichah on Yom-Tov?
  2. ... the bringing of Olos? Are all Olos included in the prohibition?
(b) With which two points do Beis Hillel disagree?

(c) Rav Ada bar Ahavah agrees with Ula that the Shelamim to which Beis Shamai and Beis Hillel refer are Shalmei Chagigah exclusively
Which kind of Shelamim then, cannot be brought on Yom-Tov?

(d) Which kind of Olah then, do Beis Hillel permit?

(a) How do they both derive their respective opinions from the Pasuk in Emor "va'Chagosem Oso *Chag* *la'Hashem*"?

(b) Why do Beis Hillel agree that Nedarim and Nedavos are forbidden?

(c) From where do we learn the obligation to bring am Olas Re'iyah on Yom- Tov?

(d) Considering that one has seven days in which to bring one's Olas Re'iyah and Shalmei Chagigah, why are they permitted on Yom-Tov any more than Nedarim and Nedavos?

(a) How do we amend the Beraisa which states that Beis Shamai and Beis Hillel *agree* that one cannot bring an Olah that is not for Yom-Tov, and that one *can* bring a *Shelamim* that *is*, and that their Machlokes is over a *Shelamim* that is *not* for Yom-Tov?

(b) Rav Yosef fails to see why it should be necessary to amend this Beraisa. How does he vindicate Ula (in 3c.) in spite of the Beraisa, without amending it?

Answers to questions



(a) According to the Tana Kama of the Beraisa, why may one not bring a Korban Todah ...
  1. ... on Pesach?
  2. ... on Shavu'os?
(b) What do we learn from the Pasuk in Ki Savo "ve'Zavachta Shelamim ve'Achalta Sham, ve'Samachta ... "?

(c) Rebbi Elazar b'Rebbi Shimon permits a Todah on Sukos, even to fulfill one's obligation of Simchah, but not a Chagigah.
Why the difference?

(a) The Tana Kama forbids bringing a Todah on Pesach because it contains Chametz.
Is that not obvious?

(b) He permits however, a Todah on Sukos.
But why should this be any different than Shavu'os, which is forbidden?

(a) Rebbi Shimon learns from a Hekesh that whatever cannot be brought on Pesach and Shavu'os, cannot be brought on Sukos either. He appears to be referring to the Chol ha'Mo'ed Sukos of the Tana Kama.
Why is this contention unacceptable?

(b) We conclude that Rebbi Shimon concedes that one is permitted to bring a Korban Todah on Chol ha'Mo'ed Sukos, and that when he compares Sukos to Pesach and Shavu'os, he is talking about 'Bal Te'acher'.
What exactly, is he then saying?

(c) What does the Tana Kama hold with regard to Bal Te'acher? What does he now mean when he says 'Aval Meivi Adam Todaso be'Chag ha'Sukos'?

(a) Rebbi Elazar b'Rebbi Shimon permits bringing a Todah on Sukos. Why can he not mean on Chol ha'Mo'ed?

(b) What then, does he mean? In which point does he argue with the Tana Kama?

(c) Then why does he mention specifically Sukos, rather than Pesach or Shavu'os?

(d) In his opinion, that is why the Torah in Re'ei finds it necessary to insert the words "u've'Chag ha'Sukos" (even though that is what it is currently discussing).
How does Rebbi Shimon explain this apparent redundancy?

(a) We ask whether, if someone declared an animal a Todah, on condition that he may fulfill his obligation of Chagigah with it, he may subsequently rely on that condition.
What do we answer?

(b) The Gemara bases its answer on the answer that Rebbi Yochanan gave Resh Lakish who asked him a similar She'eilah with regard to a Korban Nazir.
What was it?

Answers to questions
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