REVIEW QUESTIONS ON GEMARA AND RASHI
prepared by Rabbi Eliezer Chrysler
Kollel Iyun Hadaf, Jerusalem
Previous daf Bava Basra 106
BAVA BASRA 101-108 - Sponsored by a generous grant from an anonymous donor.
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(a) In a case where Reuven sells Shimon a Beis Kur 'be'Simanav
u'vi'Metzarav', our Mishnah rules Pachos mi'Shetus Higi'o, ad Sh'tus
How many Kabin comprise a sixth, in a field of a Kur?
(b) What is the reason for this?
(c) Why can this ruling have nothing to do with the Din of Ona'ah?
(d) Then what is its source?
(a) What does the Seifa of the Mishnah 'ad Sh'tus Yenakeh' mean?
(b) Rav Huna says 'Sh'tus ke'Pachos mi'Sh'tus', and the purchaser must
accept the sale.
What does Rav Yehudah say?
(c) Based on the Seifa of the Mishnah, what is the basis of their Machlokes?
(a) The Beraisa repeats the Lashon of our Mishnah, but adds (' ... O Hosir
Sh'tus, Harei Hu ke'Shum ha'Dayanim'), before the word 'Higi'o'.
the Din regarding Beis-Din who erred by exactly a sixth?
(b) Why does this pose a Kashya on Rav Huna?
(c) How does Rav Huna counter the above Kashya against him from the word
(d) So how does Rav Huna explain the Beraisa? Who must be the author,
according to him?
(a) How has the Kashya on Rav Huna now turned into a Kashya on Rav Yehudah?
Answers to questions
(b) Rav Yehudah however, counters this by re-establishing the author of the
Beraisa as the Chachamim of Raban Shimon ben Gamliel).
How does he then
(c) Alternatively, we might interpret 'Ela ke'Shum ha'Dayanim ve'Lo ke'Shum
ha'Dayanim' according to Rav Huna (who is pointing out that if Sh'tus
ke'Yoser mi'Shetus, like the Makshan asked, then the Tana should have said
'Yenakeh', and not 'Higi'o', like we explained).
- ... interpret 'ke'Shum ha'Dayanim'?
- ... qualify 'ke'Shum ha'Dayanim'?
In what respect does the
Tana then say 'ke'Shum ha'Dayanim'?
(a) A man told Rav Papa, that the field he was selling him measured twenty
What were the actual measurements of the field?
(b) What did Abaye rule in that case?
(c) Considering that the discrepancy was more than a sixth, in what way did
this case differ from 'be'Simanav u'vi'Metzarav' in our Mishnah?
(a) On what grounds did Rav Papa query Abaye's ruling? How did he interpret
the owner's assurance that it measured twenty Sa'ah?
(b) On what grounds did Abaye overrule his objection?
(a) If brothers divide their inheritance by drawing lots, is it then
necessary to then make a Kinyan in order to actually acquire their
respective portions? Why is that?
(b) Rebbi Yossi says in a Beraisa 'ha'Achin she'Chalku, Keyvan she'Alah
Goral le'Echad Meihen, Kanu Kulam'.
How do the brothers plan to apportion
(c) What does Rebbi Yossi mean, assuming that there were ...
(d) What are the ramifications of this ruling? What do the lots drawn by the
first brother achieve?
- ... only two brothers to begin with?
- ... three brothers to begin with?
(a) Which source does Rebbi Elazar cite for Rebbi Yossi's ruling?
(b) What additional procedure was required to inherit Eretz Yisrael?
(c) In that case, seeing as our source is the inheritance of Eretz Yisrael,
why are they not required by brothers or partners dividing their land?
(a) According to Rav, if a third brother arrives from overseas after the
first two brothers have divided their inheritance of Karka, the original
division is considered invalid, and they divide their property afresh. Why
is the Din here different than the previous ruling (where as soon as the
first brother acquires his portion, the remaining brothers automatically
(b) What does Shmuel say?
(a) Rava remarked to Rav Nachman that Rav holds Hadar Dina.
'Hadar Dina' mean?
(b) Why does it not then follow, he asked him, that if two out of three
brothers went and divided the joint property into three portions in front of
Beis-Din, that the division is also considered invalid.
What was Rav
(c) What sort of Beis-Din are we talking about?
(a) Rav Papa remarked to Abaye that Shmuel, who rules 'Mekamtzin', holds Kam
What does 'Kam Dina' mean?
(b) How does this seem to clash with Shmuel's other ruling (discussed
earlier) 'Kur bi'Sheloshim Ani Mocher Lach, Yachol la'Chezor Bo Afilu
(c) How do we reconcile that ruling with Shmuel's current one? What is
Shmuel's reasoning there?
(a) Then why did Shmuel conclude 'Kur bi'Sheloshim Sa'ah be'Sela Ani Mocher
Lach, Rishon Rishon Kanah'?
Answers to questions
(b) Still, why does Shmuel's basic S'vara in the Reisha there not apply here
by the division of the brothers?